RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 74
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 74
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Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A client complains of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a diagnostic workup, which reveals gallbladder cancer. Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for this client?
A. Anticipatory grieving
B. Disturbed body image
C. Impaired swallowing
D. Chronic low self-esteem
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Anticipatory grieving
The correct answer is A: Anticipatory grieving. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate because the client's symptoms, such as weight loss, fatigue, and diagnosis of gallbladder cancer, indicate a serious health condition that may lead to emotional distress. Anticipatory grieving involves feelings of loss and sadness related to an anticipated loss, such as the diagnosis of cancer. The client may experience fear, anxiety, and sadness due to the potential impact of the illness on their life.
Choice B (Disturbed body image) is incorrect because the client's symptoms are more indicative of a serious health concern rather than body image issues. Choice C (Impaired swallowing) is incorrect as the symptoms described do not suggest difficulty with swallowing. Choice D (Chronic low self-esteem) is also incorrect as the symptoms are more likely related to physical health issues rather than self-esteem concerns.
Question 2
What should a nurse prioritize for a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing an exacerbation?
A. Administer corticosteroids
B. Administer oxygen
C. Monitor respiratory rate
D. Administer diuretics
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Administer oxygen
Correct Answer: B - Administer oxygen
Rationale:
1. Oxygen therapy is crucial in managing COPD exacerbation to improve oxygen saturation levels.
2. Adequate oxygenation is essential to prevent further respiratory distress and potential complications.
3. Oxygen therapy helps alleviate symptoms like shortness of breath and fatigue, improving overall comfort.
4. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels guides the effectiveness of treatment and ensures appropriate oxygen delivery.
Summary:
- Administering corticosteroids (A) may help reduce inflammation in COPD exacerbation but does not address the immediate need for oxygen.
- Monitoring respiratory rate (C) is important but prioritizing oxygen administration is more critical for immediate respiratory support.
- Administering diuretics (D) may be indicated in certain cases of COPD exacerbation with fluid retention but is not the priority over oxygen therapy.
Question 3
What complications can cocaine and methamphetamine use in pregnancy cause?
A. seizures
B. hypotonic contractions
C. prolonged second stage labor
D. prolonged first stage labor
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — prolonged second stage labor
The correct answer is C: Prolonged second stage labor. Cocaine and methamphetamine use in pregnancy can lead to vasoconstriction, decreased blood flow to the uterus, and reduced oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in uterine hyperactivity and fetal distress during labor. This can cause the second stage of labor to be prolonged as the uterus may struggle to effectively contract and progress labor.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Seizures - While cocaine and methamphetamine use can lead to seizures in pregnant individuals, this is not directly related to labor complications.
B: Hypotonic contractions - Cocaine and methamphetamine use are more likely to cause hypertonic contractions (excessive uterine contractions) rather than hypotonic contractions.
D: Prolonged first stage labor - Cocaine and methamphetamine use are more likely to impact the second stage of labor rather than the first stage.
Question 4
Which maternal condition should be considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices?
A. Unruptured membranes
B. intravenous (IV) fluid.
C. Fetus has known heart defect
D. must act quickly to improve placental blood flow and fetal oxygen supply
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Unruptured membranes
The correct answer is A: Unruptured membranes. Internal monitoring devices are inserted through the cervix and into the uterus, which can introduce bacteria and increase the risk of infection if the membranes are not ruptured. This can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby.
Choice B (intravenous fluid) is incorrect because IV fluids are commonly used during labor to maintain hydration and provide necessary nutrients.
Choice C (Fetus has known heart defect) is incorrect because internal monitoring devices are used to assess fetal heart rate and detect any abnormalities, making this condition a reason for monitoring rather than a contraindication.
Choice D (must act quickly to improve placental blood flow and fetal oxygen supply) is incorrect because internal monitoring devices are usually used for continuous monitoring and do not require immediate intervention to be placed.
Question 5
Which intervention is most effective for preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
A. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine.
B. Changing ventilator tubing every shift.
C. Suctioning the patient hourly.
D. Keeping the patient sedated continuously.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Performing oral care with chlorhexidine.
The correct answer is A: Performing oral care with chlorhexidine. This intervention is most effective for preventing VAP because it helps reduce the colonization of pathogenic bacteria in the oral cavity, which can be aspirated into the lungs. Chlorhexidine is an antiseptic agent that can effectively reduce the risk of developing pneumonia.
Summary of other choices:
B: Changing ventilator tubing every shift - While maintaining clean ventilator tubing is important for infection prevention, it is not the most effective intervention for preventing VAP.
C: Suctioning the patient hourly - Frequent suctioning may be necessary for airway clearance, but it is not specifically targeted at preventing VAP.
D: Keeping the patient sedated continuously - Continuous sedation may lead to complications such as prolonged ventilation and increased risk of pneumonia. It is not a recommended strategy for preventing VAP.
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Question 6
Which assessment finding is most concerning for a patient receiving treatment for pneumonia?
A. Crackles heard in the lung bases.
B. Oxygen saturation of 85%.
C. Cough with yellow sputum production.
D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Oxygen saturation of 85%. This assessment finding is most concerning because it indicates severe hypoxemia, which can lead to tissue damage and respiratory failure. A low oxygen saturation level of 85% requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications.
Rationale:
1. Crackles heard in the lung bases (Choice A) are common in pneumonia but do not indicate severe hypoxemia.
2. Cough with yellow sputum production (Choice C) is a common symptom of pneumonia but does not directly reflect the patient's oxygenation status.
3. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute (Choice D) is within the normal range and may not necessarily indicate severe respiratory distress.
In summary, the oxygen saturation of 85% is the most concerning assessment finding as it directly reflects the patient's oxygenation status and requires immediate attention to prevent complications.
Allergies to sea food, eggs, etc are an example of:
A. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
D. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. In this type of reaction, allergens trigger the production of IgE antibodies, leading to mast cell and basophil degranulation and release of inflammatory mediators like histamine. This causes immediate allergic symptoms. Seafood and eggs are common allergens that can elicit this response.
B: Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction involves antibodies targeting cell surface or extracellular matrix antigens, leading to cell destruction or dysfunction. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies.
C: Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complex deposition in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies.
D: Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction is cell-mediated and involves T cells causing inflammation and tissue damage. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies.
A __________ is a set of learned beliefs, values, and behaviors.
A. Community
B. Civilization
C. Culture
D. Cultivation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Culture. Culture refers to the set of learned beliefs, values, and behaviors shared by a group of people. It encompasses language, traditions, customs, arts, and social norms. It shapes individuals' identities and guides their interactions within society.
Choice A, Community, refers to a group of people living in the same area. While communities may share aspects of culture, they do not fully encompass the complexity of culture itself.
Choice B, Civilization, refers to a complex society characterized by urban development, social stratification, and advanced cultural and technological achievements. While civilization may have its own culture, it is broader in scope than just cultural aspects.
Choice D, Cultivation, refers to the process of preparing and working on land for crops. It is not related to learned beliefs, values, and behaviors shared by a group of people.
A client has an external fixation device on his leg due to a compound fracture. The client says that the device and swelling make his leg look ugly. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse document in his care plan based on the client’s concern?
A. Impaired physical mobility
B. Disturbed body image
C. Risk for infection
D. Risk for social isolation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Disturbed body image. The client's concern about the external fixation device making his leg look ugly indicates a disturbance in his perception of his own body image. This diagnosis focuses on the client's feelings and emotions related to his appearance, which can impact his self-esteem and psychological well-being.
Rationale:
1. Impaired physical mobility (A) is not the most appropriate diagnosis in this scenario as the client's concern is related to the appearance of his leg, not his ability to move.
2. Risk for infection (C) is not the best choice because the client's concern is not directly related to the risk of infection but rather to the aesthetic aspect of his leg.
3. Risk for social isolation (D) is not the most suitable diagnosis as the client's concern is more about his own perception of his appearance rather than the potential impact on his social interactions.
The first-semester nursing student tells the team leader that her clinical assignment for the day is to take vital signs and obtain a client history that will take about 1 or 2 hours to complete. Which clients would the leader recommend that she approach to fulfill her assignment? (Select all that apply.)
A. Mr. N (non-Hodgkin lymphoma)
B. Mr. L (tracheostomy and partial laryngectomy)
C. Mr. B (bladder cancer)
D. Ms. C (bowel resection and colostomy)
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because Mr. L, who has a tracheostomy and partial laryngectomy, will likely require vital signs monitoring and a detailed client history due to his complex respiratory and communication needs. This assignment will provide the student with valuable experience in caring for clients with specialized needs.
Incorrect choices:
A: Mr. N (non-Hodgkin lymphoma) - While Mr. N may require vital signs monitoring, his condition does not necessarily involve complex care needs that would warrant a 1-2 hour history-taking session.
C: Mr. B (bladder cancer) - Vital signs monitoring and history-taking for a client with bladder cancer may not require as much time as the scenario suggests, as the care needs may not be as complex as those of a client with a tracheostomy and laryngectomy.
D: Ms. C (bowel resection and colostomy) - While Ms. C may require vital signs monitoring and history-taking
A nurse hopes to improve time management skills using the ABC prioritization approach. Which tasks would be prioritized as "B"? (select all that apply)
A. Turn in time sheet due in 3 days.
B. Review dress code policy to give feedback before appointment in the morning.
C. Perform blood glucose test on a patient admitted with Kussmaul respirations and change in level of consciousness.
D. Complete patient teaching prior to discharge in 2 hours.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because reviewing the dress code policy to give feedback before an appointment in the morning is time-sensitive and directly impacts the nurse's professional responsibilities. This task falls under the "B" category in the ABC prioritization approach, which prioritizes tasks that are important but not urgent. This task requires attention before the morning appointment to ensure professionalism and compliance.
Tasks A, C, and D are not prioritized as "B" because they are either more urgent or less important compared to reviewing the dress code policy before the morning appointment. Task A is important but not urgent as the time sheet is not due immediately. Task C is categorized as "A" as it involves a critical patient situation that requires immediate attention. Task D is categorized as "C" as it is important and time-sensitive, needing completion before discharge in 2 hours.
A 67-year-old woman had major abdominal surgery yesterday. She has IV lines, a urinary catheter, and an abdominal wound dressing, and she is receiving PRN pain medication. The end of shift report that best conveys the patient status is:
A. "Doing great, was up in the chair most of the day. No complaints of pain or discomfort. Voiding adequately."
B. "Abdominal surgery yesterday, dressing is dry and intact, her IVs are on time and she's had pain meds twice. Vital signs stable."
C. "Abdominal dressing dry, IVs—800 mL left in #6; NS running at 125 mL/hr; urine output 800 mL this shift; had morphine 15 mg for pain at 8:00 AM and at 1:30 PM. She's comfortable now. Vital signs are stable, no fever."
D. "Unchanged since this morning. She wanted to know how soon she can have something to eat, so maybe you could check with her doctor this evening. Her husband has been visiting all day and will let you know if she needs anything."
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because it provides the most detailed and comprehensive information about the patient's status, including specific details about the abdominal dressing, IV fluid status, urine output, pain management, comfort level, and vital signs. This level of detail is crucial for understanding the patient's condition post-surgery.
Choice A is incorrect because it lacks specific details regarding the patient's clinical status. Choice B is more detailed but still lacks key information such as urine output and specific pain medication doses. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses more on non-clinical information and does not provide essential details about the patient's medical condition.
In summary, choice C is correct because it offers a thorough and detailed overview of the patient's medical status, making it the most appropriate choice for an end-of-shift report in a healthcare setting.
Which of the following patients would most likely benefit from a needle decompression?
A. A 45-year-old male with a chest wall contusion and absent breath sounds on one side
B. A 62-year-old female with bilateral wheezing and difficulty breathing
C. A 30-year-old male with hypotension, JVD, and tracheal deviation after chest trauma
D. A 24-year-old female with chest pain and a productive cough
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: A 30-year-old male with hypotension, JVD, and tracheal deviation after chest trauma. This patient most likely has tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition where air accumulates in the pleural space causing mediastinal shift, JVD, and hypotension. Needle decompression is the initial treatment to relieve pressure and restore lung function.
A: A chest wall contusion with absent breath sounds suggests a potential rib fracture but not a tension pneumothorax.
B: Bilateral wheezing and difficulty breathing are more indicative of an asthma exacerbation or COPD exacerbation, not tension pneumothorax.
D: Chest pain and productive cough are more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, not tension pneumothorax.
In summary, the key features of tension pneumothorax are hypotension, JVD, and tracheal deviation after chest trauma, necessitating needle
The nurse plans to delegate a client's personal hygiene to a nursing assistant. Which statement if made by the nurse to the nursing assistant is assertive?
A. "Would you mind helping the client with a bath when you have time? If not, I will skip my lunch and do it myself."
B. "You never get your work done and are always on the phone. You need to help the client right now with a bath, or I will write you up."
C. "The client needs help with bathing. I want you to assist the client now, and you can go to lunch when you are finished."
D. "I have important work to complete this morning. You will assist the client with a bath. Do not take a break until you have finished."
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
1. The statement in choice C is assertive because it clearly states the task, timeline, and expectation without being aggressive or demeaning.
2. It communicates the need for assistance with the client's bath and sets a clear priority.
3. It provides a specific instruction for the nursing assistant to assist the client immediately and then take a break.
4. This approach demonstrates effective delegation and ensures the client's needs are met promptly and respectfully.
Summary:
A: This choice is not assertive as it presents a conditional statement and implies a personal sacrifice by the nurse if the task is not completed.
B: This choice is aggressive and threatening, which is not appropriate in a professional setting.
D: This choice is directive but lacks consideration for the nursing assistant's well-being and does not communicate the urgency of the task for the client.
A patient was admitted to the mental health unit after arguing with co-workers and threatening to kill them. He is diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. On the unit he is aloof and suspicious. He mentioned that two physicians he saw talking were plotting to kill him. On the basis of data gathered at this point, which two primary nursing diagnoses should the nurse consider?
A. Disturbed thought processes and Risk for other-directed violence
B. Spiritual distress and Social isolation
C. Risk for loneliness and Knowledge deficit
D. Disturbed personal identity and Nonadherence
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Disturbed thought processes and Risk for other-directed violence.
1. Disturbed thought processes: The patient's delusion of being plotted against by the physicians indicates impaired thought processes typical of paranoid schizophrenia.
2. Risk for other-directed violence: The patient's threatening behavior towards co-workers suggests a potential for violent acts towards others due to his paranoid beliefs.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Spiritual distress and Social isolation are not primary concerns given the patient's acute symptoms of paranoia and risk for violence.
C: Risk for loneliness and Knowledge deficit are not crucial at this point as the patient's primary issues are related to paranoia and violence.
D: Disturbed personal identity and Nonadherence are not relevant to the immediate safety and mental health concerns presented by the patient.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 74 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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