RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 74

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RN exams clinical judgment practice questions set 74

You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five clinical judgment questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A client complains of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a diagnostic workup, which reveals gallbladder cancer. Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for this client?

  1. A. Anticipatory grieving
  2. B. Disturbed body image
  3. C. Impaired swallowing
  4. D. Chronic low self-esteem
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Anticipatory grieving

The correct answer is A: Anticipatory grieving. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate because the client's symptoms, such as weight loss, fatigue, and diagnosis of gallbladder cancer, indicate a serious health condition that may lead to emotional distress. Anticipatory grieving involves feelings of loss and sadness related to an anticipated loss, such as the diagnosis of cancer. The client may experience fear, anxiety, and sadness due to the potential impact of the illness on their life. Choice B (Disturbed body image) is incorrect because the client's symptoms are more indicative of a serious health concern rather than body image issues. Choice C (Impaired swallowing) is incorrect as the symptoms described do not suggest difficulty with swallowing. Choice D (Chronic low self-esteem) is also incorrect as the symptoms are more likely related to physical health issues rather than self-esteem concerns.

Question 2

What should a nurse prioritize for a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing an exacerbation?

  1. A. Administer corticosteroids
  2. B. Administer oxygen
  3. C. Monitor respiratory rate
  4. D. Administer diuretics
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Administer oxygen

Correct Answer: B - Administer oxygen Rationale: 1. Oxygen therapy is crucial in managing COPD exacerbation to improve oxygen saturation levels. 2. Adequate oxygenation is essential to prevent further respiratory distress and potential complications. 3. Oxygen therapy helps alleviate symptoms like shortness of breath and fatigue, improving overall comfort. 4. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels guides the effectiveness of treatment and ensures appropriate oxygen delivery. Summary: - Administering corticosteroids (A) may help reduce inflammation in COPD exacerbation but does not address the immediate need for oxygen. - Monitoring respiratory rate (C) is important but prioritizing oxygen administration is more critical for immediate respiratory support. - Administering diuretics (D) may be indicated in certain cases of COPD exacerbation with fluid retention but is not the priority over oxygen therapy.

Question 3

What complications can cocaine and methamphetamine use in pregnancy cause?

  1. A. seizures
  2. B. hypotonic contractions
  3. C. prolonged second stage labor
  4. D. prolonged first stage labor
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — prolonged second stage labor

The correct answer is C: Prolonged second stage labor. Cocaine and methamphetamine use in pregnancy can lead to vasoconstriction, decreased blood flow to the uterus, and reduced oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in uterine hyperactivity and fetal distress during labor. This can cause the second stage of labor to be prolonged as the uterus may struggle to effectively contract and progress labor. Explanation for other choices: A: Seizures - While cocaine and methamphetamine use can lead to seizures in pregnant individuals, this is not directly related to labor complications. B: Hypotonic contractions - Cocaine and methamphetamine use are more likely to cause hypertonic contractions (excessive uterine contractions) rather than hypotonic contractions. D: Prolonged first stage labor - Cocaine and methamphetamine use are more likely to impact the second stage of labor rather than the first stage.

Question 4

Which maternal condition should be considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices?

  1. A. Unruptured membranes
  2. B. intravenous (IV) fluid.
  3. C. Fetus has known heart defect
  4. D. must act quickly to improve placental blood flow and fetal oxygen supply
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Unruptured membranes

The correct answer is A: Unruptured membranes. Internal monitoring devices are inserted through the cervix and into the uterus, which can introduce bacteria and increase the risk of infection if the membranes are not ruptured. This can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby. Choice B (intravenous fluid) is incorrect because IV fluids are commonly used during labor to maintain hydration and provide necessary nutrients. Choice C (Fetus has known heart defect) is incorrect because internal monitoring devices are used to assess fetal heart rate and detect any abnormalities, making this condition a reason for monitoring rather than a contraindication. Choice D (must act quickly to improve placental blood flow and fetal oxygen supply) is incorrect because internal monitoring devices are usually used for continuous monitoring and do not require immediate intervention to be placed.

Question 5

Which intervention is most effective for preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?

  1. A. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine.
  2. B. Changing ventilator tubing every shift.
  3. C. Suctioning the patient hourly.
  4. D. Keeping the patient sedated continuously.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Performing oral care with chlorhexidine.

The correct answer is A: Performing oral care with chlorhexidine. This intervention is most effective for preventing VAP because it helps reduce the colonization of pathogenic bacteria in the oral cavity, which can be aspirated into the lungs. Chlorhexidine is an antiseptic agent that can effectively reduce the risk of developing pneumonia. Summary of other choices: B: Changing ventilator tubing every shift - While maintaining clean ventilator tubing is important for infection prevention, it is not the most effective intervention for preventing VAP. C: Suctioning the patient hourly - Frequent suctioning may be necessary for airway clearance, but it is not specifically targeted at preventing VAP. D: Keeping the patient sedated continuously - Continuous sedation may lead to complications such as prolonged ventilation and increased risk of pneumonia. It is not a recommended strategy for preventing VAP.

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Question 6

Which assessment finding is most concerning for a patient receiving treatment for pneumonia?

  1. A. Crackles heard in the lung bases.
  2. B. Oxygen saturation of 85%.
  3. C. Cough with yellow sputum production.
  4. D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.
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Question 7

Allergies to sea food, eggs, etc are an example of:

  1. A. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
  2. B. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
  3. C. Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
  4. D. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction
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Question 8

A __________ is a set of learned beliefs, values, and behaviors.

  1. A. Community
  2. B. Civilization
  3. C. Culture
  4. D. Cultivation
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Question 9

A client has an external fixation device on his leg due to a compound fracture. The client says that the device and swelling make his leg look ugly. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse document in his care plan based on the client’s concern?

  1. A. Impaired physical mobility
  2. B. Disturbed body image
  3. C. Risk for infection
  4. D. Risk for social isolation
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Question 10

The first-semester nursing student tells the team leader that her clinical assignment for the day is to take vital signs and obtain a client history that will take about 1 or 2 hours to complete. Which clients would the leader recommend that she approach to fulfill her assignment? (Select all that apply.)

  1. A. Mr. N (non-Hodgkin lymphoma)
  2. B. Mr. L (tracheostomy and partial laryngectomy)
  3. C. Mr. B (bladder cancer)
  4. D. Ms. C (bowel resection and colostomy)
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Question 11

A nurse hopes to improve time management skills using the ABC prioritization approach. Which tasks would be prioritized as "B"? (select all that apply)

  1. A. Turn in time sheet due in 3 days.
  2. B. Review dress code policy to give feedback before appointment in the morning.
  3. C. Perform blood glucose test on a patient admitted with Kussmaul respirations and change in level of consciousness.
  4. D. Complete patient teaching prior to discharge in 2 hours.
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Question 12

A 67-year-old woman had major abdominal surgery yesterday. She has IV lines, a urinary catheter, and an abdominal wound dressing, and she is receiving PRN pain medication. The end of shift report that best conveys the patient status is:

  1. A. "Doing great, was up in the chair most of the day. No complaints of pain or discomfort. Voiding adequately."
  2. B. "Abdominal surgery yesterday, dressing is dry and intact, her IVs are on time and she's had pain meds twice. Vital signs stable."
  3. C. "Abdominal dressing dry, IVs—800 mL left in #6; NS running at 125 mL/hr; urine output 800 mL this shift; had morphine 15 mg for pain at 8:00 AM and at 1:30 PM. She's comfortable now. Vital signs are stable, no fever."
  4. D. "Unchanged since this morning. She wanted to know how soon she can have something to eat, so maybe you could check with her doctor this evening. Her husband has been visiting all day and will let you know if she needs anything."
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Question 13

Which of the following patients would most likely benefit from a needle decompression?

  1. A. A 45-year-old male with a chest wall contusion and absent breath sounds on one side
  2. B. A 62-year-old female with bilateral wheezing and difficulty breathing
  3. C. A 30-year-old male with hypotension, JVD, and tracheal deviation after chest trauma
  4. D. A 24-year-old female with chest pain and a productive cough
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Question 14

The nurse plans to delegate a client's personal hygiene to a nursing assistant. Which statement if made by the nurse to the nursing assistant is assertive?

  1. A. "Would you mind helping the client with a bath when you have time? If not, I will skip my lunch and do it myself."
  2. B. "You never get your work done and are always on the phone. You need to help the client right now with a bath, or I will write you up."
  3. C. "The client needs help with bathing. I want you to assist the client now, and you can go to lunch when you are finished."
  4. D. "I have important work to complete this morning. You will assist the client with a bath. Do not take a break until you have finished."
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Question 15

A patient was admitted to the mental health unit after arguing with co-workers and threatening to kill them. He is diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. On the unit he is aloof and suspicious. He mentioned that two physicians he saw talking were plotting to kill him. On the basis of data gathered at this point, which two primary nursing diagnoses should the nurse consider?

  1. A. Disturbed thought processes and Risk for other-directed violence
  2. B. Spiritual distress and Social isolation
  3. C. Risk for loneliness and Knowledge deficit
  4. D. Disturbed personal identity and Nonadherence
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About these RN exams clinical judgment questions

RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 74 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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