RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 7
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 7
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A 5-year-old boy is diagnosed to have autistic disorder. Which of the following manifestations may be noted in a client with autistic disorder?
A. Argumentativeness, disobedience, angry outburst
B. Intolerance to change, disturbed relatedness, stereotypes
C. Distractibility, impulsiveness, and overactivity
D. Aggression, truancy, stealing, lying
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Intolerance to change, disturbed relatedness, stereotypes
The correct answer is B: Intolerance to change, disturbed relatedness, stereotypes. Children with autistic disorder often struggle with changes in routine, have difficulties in forming relationships, and exhibit repetitive behaviors or fixations. Intolerance to change is a common feature due to their need for predictability and structure. Disturbed relatedness refers to challenges in social interactions and communication. Stereotypical behaviors like hand-flapping or insistence on sameness are also typical.
A: Argumentativeness, disobedience, angry outburst - While children with autism may exhibit behavioral challenges, these specific manifestations are more commonly associated with oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder, not necessarily autistic disorder.
C: Distractibility, impulsiveness, and overactivity - These symptoms are characteristic of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) rather than autistic disorder.
D: Aggression, truancy, stealing, lying - While some children with autism may display aggression or difficulties with honesty, truancy, and
Question 2
While en route back to your station from a call, you discover that you forgot to include important patient information on your patient care report. Which of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A. Document the information on the back of your original patient care report
B. Contact the emergency department staff and notify them of your error
C. Complete an addendum, and return to the hospital to add it to the report
D. Do nothing since you already left a copy of the patient care report at the hospital
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Complete an addendum, and return to the hospital to add it to the report
The correct answer is C: Complete an addendum, and return to the hospital to add it to the report. This is the most appropriate action as it ensures the patient's information is accurately documented. By completing an addendum and returning to the hospital, you can update the patient care report with the missing information in a timely manner. This helps maintain the integrity of the patient record and ensures continuity of care.
Option A is not the best choice as documenting the information on the back of the original patient care report may not be considered a formal and standardized way of updating the report, which could lead to issues with clarity and organization.
Option B involves contacting the emergency department staff, which is a good step, but it does not address the issue of updating the patient care report itself.
Option D is incorrect because simply leaving a copy of the patient care report at the hospital does not resolve the issue of missing important patient information. Ignoring the mistake could lead to potential errors in future patient care or legal
Question 3
When athletes warm up, they illustrate a(n) type of muscle contraction.
A. isotonic
B. isometric
C. treppe
D. tetanus
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — treppe
Warming up, athletes perform movements like stretching or light jogging, exemplifying treppe the staircase effect. Initial contractions increase force progressively as calcium accumulates and muscle fibers activate more efficiently, enhancing performance without fatigue. Isotonic contractions shorten muscles against constant load (e.g., lifting), while isometric maintain length under tension (e.g., planks) both common in exercise but not warm-up specific. Twitch is a single, brief contraction, not sustained activity. Tetanus involves maximal, fused contractions from rapid stimuli, typical of intense effort, not warm-ups. Treppe, observed in physiology labs, boosts contractility over successive stimuli at low frequency, warming muscle tissue, increasing blood flow, and optimizing enzyme activity. This priming contrasts with isotonic's dynamic shortening or tetanus's sustained force, aligning with warm-ups' preparatory role. Studies show treppe elevates twitch force 20-50% early on, a subtle yet critical enhancement for athletes, distinct from static or exhaustive contraction types.
Question 4
A 35-year-old woman who is being interviewed by the advanced practice nurse indicates that she has few friends, fears criticism from others, and withholds information about her thoughts and feelings because she anticipates a negative reaction. Based on these data, the nurse suspects that Sarah may later be diagnosed as having:
A. Borderline personality disorder
B. Histrionic personality disorder
C. Avoidant personality disorder
D. Schizoid personality disorder
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Avoidant personality disorder
The correct answer is C: Avoidant personality disorder. This is because the woman's fear of criticism, reluctance to share thoughts and feelings, and limited social interactions are characteristic of avoidant personality disorder. Individuals with this disorder have intense feelings of inadequacy, fear of rejection, and avoid situations where they may be criticized or judged.
Choice A: Borderline personality disorder is not the correct answer because individuals with borderline personality disorder typically have unstable relationships, impulsivity, and a fear of abandonment.
Choice B: Histrionic personality disorder is not the correct answer as individuals with this disorder seek attention and exhibit dramatic and attention-seeking behavior, which is not indicated in the scenario.
Choice D: Schizoid personality disorder is not the correct answer as individuals with this disorder tend to have a limited range of emotional expression and lack interest in forming social relationships, which does not align with the woman's fear of criticism and desire to avoid negative reactions.
Question 5
An 18-year-old pregnant female has tested positive for HIV and asks the nurse if her baby is going to be born with HIV. What is the nurses best response?
A. There is no way to know that for certain, but we do know that your baby has a one in four chance of being born with HIV.
B. Your physician is likely the best one to ask that question.
C. If the baby is HIV positive there is nothing that can be done until it is born, so try your best not to worry about it now.
D. Its possible that your baby could contract HIV, either before, during, or after delivery.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Its possible that your baby could contract HIV, either before, during, or after delivery.
The correct answer is D because it provides an accurate and comprehensive response to the pregnant patient's question about the risk of her baby being born with HIV. Here's the step-by-step rationale:
1. Option D acknowledges the possibility of the baby contracting HIV at different stages: before, during, or after delivery. This covers all potential scenarios and educates the patient about the risks.
2. By mentioning the different possible transmission times, the nurse highlights the importance of proper prenatal care, delivery planning, and postnatal care to minimize the risk of HIV transmission to the baby.
3. This response empowers the patient with knowledge about the potential risks and emphasizes the importance of seeking appropriate medical interventions to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV.
4. In contrast, options A, B, and C provide less informative or inaccurate responses that do not address the patient's concerns adequately, making them incorrect choices.
In summary, option D is the best response as it educates the patient about the risks of HIV transmission
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Question 6
A nurse has only a regular blood pressure cuff when conducting a health screening for all of the residents of a community. Which of the following may be lacking when obtaining blood pressure readings?
A. Reliability
B. Sensitivity
C. Specificity
D. Validity
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Sensitivity. The regular blood pressure cuff may lack sensitivity when obtaining blood pressure readings because it may not accurately detect subtle changes in blood pressure levels. Sensitivity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals with the condition (high blood pressure, in this case). Since a regular cuff may not be as precise as specialized equipment, it could miss detecting high blood pressure in some individuals, leading to inaccurate readings.
A: Reliability - Reliability refers to the consistency of measurements. While a regular cuff may be consistent in its readings, it may not be sensitive enough to accurately detect high blood pressure in all individuals.
C: Specificity - Specificity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals without the condition. The regular cuff's lack of sensitivity may not impact its specificity.
D: Validity - Validity refers to the accuracy of a test in measuring what it is intended to measure. The regular cuff may still provide valid blood pressure readings within
The nurse cares for a client who has several options for cancer treatment. Which document supports the client's right to have access to information about treatment options?
A. The Standards of Clinical Practice
B. An Advance Health Care Directive
C. The Patient's Bill of Rights
D. A Client's Living Will
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: The Patient's Bill of Rights. This document supports the client's right to access information about treatment options as it ensures that clients have the right to make informed decisions about their healthcare. The Patient's Bill of Rights outlines the rights and responsibilities of patients, including the right to receive information about their medical condition, treatment options, risks, and benefits.
The other choices are incorrect because:
A: The Standards of Clinical Practice provide guidelines for healthcare professionals and do not specifically address the client's right to access information.
B: An Advance Health Care Directive is a legal document that specifies a person's wishes regarding medical treatment in the event they are unable to communicate, but it does not necessarily address the right to access treatment information.
D: A Client's Living Will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences for medical care in certain situations, but it does not specifically address the right to access information about treatment options.
A continuous, sustained contraction that shows no relaxation is called
A. complete tetanus
B. twitch
C. incomplete tetanus
D. wave summation
Correct answer:
Complete tetanus occurs when rapid, repeated stimuli fuse muscle contractions into a sustained, maximal force with no relaxation phase. High-frequency nerve impulses (e.g., 50-100 Hz in humans) keep calcium levels elevated in the sarcoplasm, preventing actin-myosin cross-bridges from disengaging. A twitch is a single, brief contraction-relaxation cycle from one stimulus, lasting 20-100 ms. Incomplete tetanus, with slightly slower stimuli, shows partial relaxation between peaks. Wave summation adds force as stimuli increase before full relaxation, but retains distinct twitches. Treppe enhances force gradually without fusion. Complete tetanus, observable in lab settings or extreme exertion, maximizes tension up to 4-5 times twitch force reflecting sustained motor unit recruitment. Electromyography distinguishes its smooth plateau from twitch's spike or incomplete tetanus's ripples. Physiologically, it mimics intense efforts like lifting heavy loads, contrasting with transient or stepped responses, highlighting muscle's capacity for prolonged output under continuous stimulation.
A nurse has only a regular blood pressure cuff when conducting a health screening for all of the residents of a community. Which of the following may be lacking when obtaining blood pressure readings?
A. Reliability
B. Sensitivity
C. Specificity
D. Validity
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Sensitivity. The regular blood pressure cuff may lack sensitivity when obtaining blood pressure readings because it may not accurately detect subtle changes in blood pressure levels. Sensitivity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals with the condition (high blood pressure, in this case). Since a regular cuff may not be as precise as specialized equipment, it could miss detecting high blood pressure in some individuals, leading to inaccurate readings.
A: Reliability - Reliability refers to the consistency of measurements. While a regular cuff may be consistent in its readings, it may not be sensitive enough to accurately detect high blood pressure in all individuals.
C: Specificity - Specificity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals without the condition. The regular cuff's lack of sensitivity may not impact its specificity.
D: Validity - Validity refers to the accuracy of a test in measuring what it is intended to measure. The regular cuff may still provide valid blood pressure readings within
A 5-year-old boy is diagnosed to have autistic disorder. Which of the following manifestations may be noted in a client with autistic disorder?
A. Argumentativeness, disobedience, angry outburst
B. Intolerance to change, disturbed relatedness, stereotypes
C. Distractibility, impulsiveness, and overactivity
D. Aggression, truancy, stealing, lying
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Intolerance to change, disturbed relatedness, stereotypes. Children with autistic disorder often struggle with changes in routine, have difficulties in forming relationships, and exhibit repetitive behaviors or fixations. Intolerance to change is a common feature due to their need for predictability and structure. Disturbed relatedness refers to challenges in social interactions and communication. Stereotypical behaviors like hand-flapping or insistence on sameness are also typical.
A: Argumentativeness, disobedience, angry outburst - While children with autism may exhibit behavioral challenges, these specific manifestations are more commonly associated with oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder, not necessarily autistic disorder.
C: Distractibility, impulsiveness, and overactivity - These symptoms are characteristic of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) rather than autistic disorder.
D: Aggression, truancy, stealing, lying - While some children with autism may display aggression or difficulties with honesty, truancy, and
While en route back to your station from a call, you discover that you forgot to include important patient information on your patient care report. Which of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A. Document the information on the back of your original patient care report
B. Contact the emergency department staff and notify them of your error
C. Complete an addendum, and return to the hospital to add it to the report
D. Do nothing since you already left a copy of the patient care report at the hospital
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Complete an addendum, and return to the hospital to add it to the report. This is the most appropriate action as it ensures the patient's information is accurately documented. By completing an addendum and returning to the hospital, you can update the patient care report with the missing information in a timely manner. This helps maintain the integrity of the patient record and ensures continuity of care.
Option A is not the best choice as documenting the information on the back of the original patient care report may not be considered a formal and standardized way of updating the report, which could lead to issues with clarity and organization.
Option B involves contacting the emergency department staff, which is a good step, but it does not address the issue of updating the patient care report itself.
Option D is incorrect because simply leaving a copy of the patient care report at the hospital does not resolve the issue of missing important patient information. Ignoring the mistake could lead to potential errors in future patient care or legal
After attending an educational program, the nurse understaanbidrbs.c othma/tte swt hich the following situations would require an ethics consultation?
A. Conflict has occurred between the primary care provid er and family regarding treatment decisions. A family conference is held, and the family and primary care provider agree to a treatment plan that includes aggres sive treatment for 24 hours followed by re-evaluation.
B. Family members disagree as to a patient’s course of tre atment. The patient has designated a healthcare proxy and has a written advancaebi rdb.icroemc/tteivste .
C. A postoperative coronary artery bypass surgery patient was successfully resuscitated after sustaining a cardiopulmonary arrest i n the operating room The patient who is now not responding to treatment has a written advance directive and has a life partner at the bedside.
D. Patient with multiple trauma and is not responding to treatment. No family members are known, and care is considered futile.
Correct answer:
Step 1: The correct answer is D because the situation involves a patient with multiple trauma who is not responding to treatment and has no known family members. This indicates a complex ethical dilemma where the medical team may be unsure about the appropriate course of action.
Step 2: In this scenario, an ethics consultation is necessary to help guide decision-making regarding the care of the patient. The lack of available family members complicates decision-making, and the consideration of care as futile adds another layer of complexity.
Step 3: An ethics consultation can provide a structured framework for evaluating the situation, considering ethical principles such as beneficence, non-maleficence, autonomy, and justice. It can help the healthcare team navigate the ethical considerations and make a well-informed decision in the best interest of the patient.
Summary:
Choice A: While conflicts between the primary care provider and family may warrant discussions, the agreement on a treatment plan does not necessarily require an ethics consultation.
Choice B: Disagreement
D. Implementing universal healthcare without changing infrastructure
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Expanding access, focusing on cost containment. This choice accurately reflects the major trends in U.S. healthcare reform over recent years. Expanding access aims to ensure more people have health insurance coverage while cost containment strategies focus on controlling rising healthcare costs.
Rationale:
1. Expanding access: The Affordable Care Act (ACA) and Medicaid expansion have been key initiatives to increase access to healthcare for more Americans.
2. Cost containment: Measures like value-based care, accountable care organizations, and efforts to reduce unnecessary healthcare spending are being implemented to address the issue of escalating healthcare costs.
Summary:
A: Increasing privatization, reducing regulation - While there have been some moves towards privatization, the main focus has been on expanding access rather than increasing privatization. Reducing regulation is not a predominant trend in U.S. healthcare reform.
C: Shifting to a single-payer system - While this has been proposed by some, it is not currently a major trend in U
An89-year-oldmalepatientiswheelchairboundfollowingahemorrhagicstrokeandhasbeenlivingin N anursinghomesinceleavingthehospital.Hereturnstotheadjacentprimarycareclinicbywheelchair forfollow-upcareofhypertensionandotherhealthproblems.Thenursewouldmodifyhishealthhistory toincludewhichquestion?
A. Tell me about your medications: How do you usually get them each day?
B. Tell me about where you live: Do you feel your needs are being met, and do you feel safe?
C. What limitations are you dealing with related to your health and being in a wheelchair? Test Bank - Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing 15e 91
D. How do you deal with that?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: "What limitations are you dealing with related to your health and being in a wheelchair?" This question is the most appropriate as it directly addresses the patient's current health status and the impact of being wheelchair-bound on his daily life. It shows a focus on assessing the patient's functional status and potential challenges he may be facing due to his condition.
Choice A is incorrect because while knowing about the patient's medications and how he obtains them is important, it does not directly address the impact of his current health status and wheelchair use.
Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's living situation rather than his health status and wheelchair limitations.
Choice D is incorrect as it is a vague and open-ended question that does not specifically address the patient's health status and the impact of being wheelchair-bound.
In summary, choice C is the correct answer as it directly addresses the patient's health and functional limitations, which are crucial for providing appropriate care and support.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a 16-year-old female client experiencing her first outbreak of genital herpes. The client states that she contracted the disease by holding hands with someone who has syphilis. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify as the priority?
A. Acute pain related to the development of genital lesions
B. Lack of knowledge about the disease and its transmission
C. Ineffective coping related to the increased stress associated with the infection
D. Noncompliance with treatment related to age of the client
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Lack of knowledge about the disease and its transmission. This is the priority nursing diagnosis because the client's statement about contracting herpes by holding hands with someone who has syphilis indicates a lack of understanding about how genital herpes is transmitted. The nurse should prioritize educating the client about the disease, its transmission, and prevention to empower the client to make informed decisions about her health.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect:
A: Acute pain may be a symptom of genital herpes, but addressing the lack of knowledge about the disease and its transmission is more essential for the client's well-being.
C: While coping with the stress of the infection is important, addressing the lack of knowledge should take precedence to prevent further transmission and help the client manage the condition effectively.
D: Noncompliance with treatment may be a concern, but addressing the client's lack of knowledge about the disease and its transmission is crucial in promoting understanding and adherence to treatment.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 7 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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