Nursier
Register
Log in Register Register

RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 56

RN exams · clinical judgment

RN exams clinical judgment practice questions set 56

You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five clinical judgment questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

Which of the following will NOT be triggered by the release of acetyl choline in the synapse at the neuromuscular junction during muscle contraction?

  1. A. Generation of an action potential in the muscles
  2. B. Release of Ca²⁺ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  3. C. Binding of ATP molecules to the myosin head
  4. D. Shifting of tropomyosin to expose the myosin binding sites on actin filaments
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Binding of ATP molecules to the myosin head

At the neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine release initiates muscle contraction by binding to receptors on the muscle membrane, causing depolarization and an action potential that propagates along the fiber. This triggers calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which binds to troponin, shifting tropomyosin to expose myosin-binding sites on actin, enabling contraction. These events form a direct cascade from acetylcholine's action. However, ATP binding to the myosin head occurs later in the cross-bridge cycle, detaching myosin from actin after a power stroke, a process not directly initiated by acetylcholine but part of the contraction-relaxation cycle powered by ATP hydrolysis. This distinction highlights that while calcium and actin exposure are immediate downstream effects, ATP's role is a subsequent step, reliant on energy dynamics rather than the initial synaptic signal, making it the exception in this sequence.

Question 2

Janice is a 32-year-old female who presents for evaluation of abdominal pain. She has no significant medical or surgical history and denies any history of ulcers, reflux, or gastritis. However, she is now in significant pain and is afraid something is really wrong. She describes what started out as a dull discomfort in the upper part of her stomach a few hours ago but has now become more profound and centered on the right side just under her ribcage. She has not vomited but says she feels nauseous. Physical exam reveals normal vital signs except for a pulse of 117 bpm. She is clearly uncomfortable, and palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness with deep palpation of the right upper quadrant. The AGACNP orders which imaging study to investigate the likely cause?

  1. A. Abdominal radiographs
  2. B. CT scan of the abdomen with contrast
  3. C. Right upper quadrant ultrasound
  4. D. A HIDA scan
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — A HIDA scan

The correct answer is D: A HIDA scan. A HIDA scan is the most appropriate imaging study for investigating the likely cause in this case because the patient's symptoms (abdominal pain centered on the right side just under the ribcage, tenderness in the right upper quadrant) are suggestive of a possible gallbladder issue, such as cholecystitis or biliary colic. A HIDA scan is specifically used to evaluate the gallbladder and biliary system. A: Abdominal radiographs would not provide detailed information about the gallbladder or biliary system, and are not the best choice in this scenario. B: A CT scan of the abdomen with contrast can be helpful in some situations, but it may not provide the specific information needed to evaluate the gallbladder and biliary system. C: Right upper quadrant ultrasound is a good initial imaging study for evaluating gallbladder disease, but a HIDA scan is more specific for functional assessment of

Question 3

Postnatal nurses expressed concern about neonatal pain management during painful interventions. Using evidence-based practice from research performed by Thakkar, Arora, Das, Javadekar, and Panigrahi (2016), which method of pain control will be used for heel sticks?

  1. A. An anesthetic gel will be applied 20 minutes before the stick.
  2. B. The stick will be administered while the neonate is breastfeeding.
  3. C. A combination of stimulated sucking and receiving sucrose orally.
  4. D. The neonate is stuck while the mother and neonate are en face.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — A combination of stimulated sucking and receiving sucrose orally.

The correct answer is C, a combination of stimulated sucking and receiving sucrose orally. Thakkar et al. (2016) found that this method effectively reduced pain response during heel sticks in neonates. Stimulated sucking triggers the release of endorphins, providing natural pain relief, while sucrose activates sweet taste receptors, further reducing pain perception. This dual approach addresses both physiological and psychological aspects of pain management in neonates. Choice A (anesthetic gel) may not be as effective for heel sticks as it takes time to work and may not provide comprehensive pain relief. Choice B (breastfeeding) may distract the neonate but does not directly address pain management. Choice D (en face positioning) may promote bonding but does not offer a specific pain management strategy. Overall, choice C is supported by research and provides a holistic approach to neonatal pain control during heel sticks.

Question 4

A wound culture revealed Gram-negative rods that are lactose non-fermenters. The bacteria were isolated from a patient with a deep tissue infection. What is the most likely microorganism?

  1. A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. B. Escherichia coli
  3. C. Salmonella typhi
  4. D. Shigella dysenteriae
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Pseudomonas aeruginosa

The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative rod that is a lactose non-fermenter commonly associated with deep tissue infections. It is an opportunistic pathogen known for its ability to cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. P. aeruginosa is often resistant to multiple antibiotics and can form biofilms, making it difficult to treat. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod that ferments lactose and is commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract. It is not typically associated with deep tissue infections. C: Salmonella typhi is a Gram-negative rod that causes typhoid fever, primarily affecting the gastrointestinal system, not deep tissue infections. D: Shigella dysenteriae is a Gram-negative rod that causes bacillary dysentery, which primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract and does not typically cause deep tissue infections.

Question 5

The correct descending order of taxonomic categories is

  1. A. species, domain, phylum, kingdom, order, division, class, genus
  2. B. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, family, order, genus, species
  3. C. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
  4. D. kingdom, domain, phylum, order, class, family, genus, species
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

The correct descending order of taxonomic categories is domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species. This hierarchical classification system helps organize and categorize living organisms based on their shared characteristics and evolutionary relationships. Explanation: - Domain is the broadest category, representing the highest level of classification. - Kingdom further divides organisms into major groups based on similar characteristics. - Phylum, class, order, family, and genus successively narrow down the classification based on more specific shared characteristics. - Species is the most specific category, representing individual organisms capable of interbreeding. Summary of other choices: A: Incorrect as it has the incorrect order of phylum, kingdom, and division. B: Incorrect as it has the incorrect order of family and species. D: Incorrect as it has the incorrect order of domain, kingdom, and class.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.

Start studying See pricing

Ten more RN exams clinical judgment questions

Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.

Question 6

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been hospitalized for an acute asthma exacerbation. Which testing method might the nurse use to measure the patient's oxygen saturation?

  1. A. Thoracentesis
  2. B. Pulse oximetry
  3. C. Diffusion capacity
  4. D. Maximal respiratory pressure
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

  1. A. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my pain.
  2. B. I will avoid eating spicy foods.
  3. C. I will limit my intake of dairy products.
  4. D. I will take my antacids 30 minutes before meals.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 8

When using an interpreter to facilitate an interview, where should the interpreter be positioned?

  1. A. Behind you, the examiner, so that the lips of the patient and the patient's nonverbal cues can be seen
  2. B. Next to the patient, so the examiner can maintain eye contact and observe the nonverbal cues of the patient
  3. C. Between you and the patient so all parties can make the necessary observations
  4. D. In a corner of the room so as to provide minimal distraction to the interview
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 9

Which of the following is a guideline for dealing with urinary incontinence?

  1. A. The nursing assistant should let roommates know when residents have been incontinent so that they can help notify the care team when incontinence occurs.
  2. B. The nursing assistant should tell residents' families about episodes of incontinence so they can encourage residents to do better.
  3. C. The nursing assistant should change wet or soiled linens or incontinence briefs immediately.
  4. D. The nursing assistant should not offer fluids because this will help lessen episodes of incontinence.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 10

Teaching a client with gonorrhea about reinfection prevention is an example of:

  1. A. primary prevention
  2. B. secondary prevention
  3. C. tertiary prevention
  4. D. primary health care prevention
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 11

Which of the following are examples of incidental disclosures of patient health information that are permitted? Select all that apply.

  1. A. A nurse working in a physicians office puts out a sign-in sheet for incoming patients.
  2. B. Two nurses are overheard talking about a patient through the door of an empty patient room.
  3. C. A nurse places a patient chart in a holder on the examining room door with the name facing out.
  4. D. A nurse leaves an x-ray on a light board in the hallway that leads to the examining rooms.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 12

An individual experiences sexual dysfunction and blames it on a partner by calling the person unattractive and unromantic. Which defense mechanism is evident?

  1. A. Rationalization
  2. B. Compensation
  3. C. Introjection
  4. D. Regression
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 13

A nurse is developing nursing diagnoses for a group of patients. Which nursing diagnoses will the nurse use? (Select all that apply.)

  1. A. Anxiety related to barium enema
  2. B. Impaired gas exchange related to asthma
  3. C. Impaired physical mobility related to incisional pain
  4. D. Nausea related to adverse effect of cancer medication
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 14

Which cells in the seminiferous tubules progress through the first meiotic division?

  1. A. Sertoli cells
  2. B. Spermatogonia
  3. C. Spermatid
  4. D. primary spermatocyte
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 15

A nurse is providing preoperative teaching for a woman who is undergoing a total mastectomy. Which will this teaching include? Select all that apply.

  1. A. Explain that she will have an IV, a drain, and a dressing in place on awakening. Tell her about expectations she may have regarding physical appearance, pain management, equipment that will be used (IVs, drains, etc.).
  2. B. Explain that she will be provided pain management as needed; monitor and review the pain scale to be used to identify level of intensity.
  3. C. Have her elevate the affected arm with pillows.
  4. D. Turn the woman every 4 hours, alternating between the unaffected side and affected side. To prevent pneumonia and complications, have her cough and take deep breaths every 2 hours, while nurse applies support to the chest.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

About these RN exams clinical judgment questions

RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 56 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.

Start studying See pricing