RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 145
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 145
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Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse is concerned about the skin integrity of the patient in the intraoperative phase of surgery. Which action will the nurse take to minimize skin breakdown?
A. Encouraging the patient to bathe before surgery
B. Securing attachments to the operating table with foam padding
C. Periodically adjusting the patient during the surgical procedure
D. Measuring the time a patient is in one position during surgery
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Securing attachments to the operating table with foam padding
The correct answer is B: Securing attachments to the operating table with foam padding. This action helps distribute pressure and reduce the risk of skin breakdown by providing cushioning and support. Securing attachments with foam padding minimizes direct pressure on bony prominences, enhancing skin integrity.
A: Encouraging the patient to bathe before surgery does not directly address skin breakdown prevention during the intraoperative phase.
C: Periodically adjusting the patient during the surgical procedure may disrupt the surgical field and increase the risk of complications.
D: Measuring the time a patient is in one position during surgery is important but does not actively prevent skin breakdown; it is more focused on monitoring positioning duration.
Question 2
An 86-year-old man with no ADL deficits who has stopped driving because of macular degeneration is evaluated for a urinary tract infection associated with urinary retention. The consulting urologist places a Foley catheter and sends a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level that comes back 12 ng/mL. Three months later after the Foley has been removed and he has had a good response to tamsulosin, his PSA is still 10 ng/mL. What is the appropriate next step in managing this man’s prostate problem?
A. Transrectal ultrasound and biopsy
B. Empiric finasteride
C. Bone scan
D. Repeat PSA in 6 months
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Repeat PSA in 6 months
The correct answer is D: Repeat PSA in 6 months. In this case, the patient's PSA levels have decreased from 12 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL after treatment with tamsulosin and removal of the Foley catheter. Given the improvement in PSA levels, it is reasonable to monitor for further changes before considering invasive procedures like transrectal ultrasound and biopsy (choice A), which may not be necessary at this time. Empiric finasteride (choice B) is not indicated as the patient is already responding well to tamsulosin. A bone scan (choice C) is not necessary at this stage as there are no indications of metastasis. Therefore, repeating the PSA in 6 months allows for continued monitoring of the patient's prostate health without subjecting him to unnecessary procedures.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a laboring person who is in the first stage of labor. What is the most important intervention to support the person during this stage?
A. provide non-pharmacological pain relief
B. administer pain relief
C. administer analgesics
D. administer IV fluids
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — provide non-pharmacological pain relief
The correct answer is A: provide non-pharmacological pain relief. During the first stage of labor, it is crucial to prioritize non-pharmacological pain relief techniques such as breathing exercises, massage, and positioning to help manage the discomfort and promote comfort. This approach aligns with the goal of supporting the person's natural labor process and minimizing interventions that could potentially affect the progress of labor. Administering pain relief (B) or analgesics (C) may not be necessary or advisable at this stage unless specifically requested by the laboring person or deemed appropriate by the healthcare provider. Administering IV fluids (D) is important for hydration but is not the most critical intervention during the first stage of labor.
Question 4
What is the primary purpose of a functional assessment?
A. Focuses on health patterns, including roles and relationships
B. Covers life-threatening conditions
C. Prioritizes a single health issue
D. Identifies vital sign abnormalities
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Focuses on health patterns, including roles and relationships
The correct answer is A because a functional assessment primarily focuses on evaluating an individual's health patterns, including their roles and relationships in daily life. This comprehensive approach helps healthcare professionals understand the impact of health on a person's overall well-being and quality of life.
Choice B is incorrect because a functional assessment does not specifically cover life-threatening conditions; it is more holistic in nature. Choice C is incorrect as a functional assessment does not prioritize a single health issue but considers multiple aspects of a person's functioning. Choice D is incorrect because although vital sign abnormalities may be part of the assessment, they are not the primary purpose of a functional assessment.
Question 5
.A client complains of urinary discomfort and a burning sensation while urinating. A urethral smear shows evidence of urethritis, and the client is prescribed antibiotics and instructed to drink 2-3 L of water daily. For which of the ff reasons is the client advised to drink the specified amount of water?
A. It will help him overcome urinary incontinence
B. It will promote renal blood flow and flush bacteria from the urinary tract
C. It will help him eliminate urinary odors
D. It will provide relief from pain and discomfort as a result of urinary tract infection DISTURBANCES IN FLUIDS AND ELECTROLYTES
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — It will promote renal blood flow and flush bacteria from the urinary tract
Step 1: Antibiotics are prescribed to treat urethritis, indicating a bacterial infection in the urinary tract.
Step 2: Increasing water intake (2-3 L daily) promotes renal blood flow, dilutes urine, and helps flush out bacteria from the urinary tract, aiding in the elimination of infection.
Step 3: Adequate hydration helps prevent the formation of concentrated urine, reducing the risk of recurrent urinary tract infections.
Step 4: Therefore, choice B is correct as it directly addresses the underlying cause of the client's symptoms.
Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly target the bacterial infection causing the urinary discomfort. Drinking water will not specifically help with incontinence, eliminate odors, or provide pain relief.
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Question 6
A patient is to be administered an immunization. The serum contains aluminum phosphate. What route is most appropriate to administer this immunization?
A. Intramuscularly
B. Subcutaneously
C. Intravenously
D. Orally
Correct answer:
The most appropriate route to administer an immunization containing aluminum phosphate is intramuscularly. Aluminum phosphate is commonly used as an adjuvant in vaccines to enhance the immune response. Intramuscular administration allows for the vaccine to be delivered into the muscle tissue, where it can be effectively absorbed by the body's immune cells. Subcutaneous administration is not ideal for vaccines containing aluminum phosphate, as it may not elicit the desired immune response. Intravenous administration is typically reserved for specific medications or situations that require rapid absorption into the bloodstream. Oral administration is not suitable for vaccines containing aluminum phosphate as they would be degraded in the gastrointestinal tract.
The nurse in the ED is caring for a 4 year-old brought in by his parents who state that the child will not stop crying and pulling at his ear. Based on information collected by the nurse, which of the following statements applies to a diagnosis of external otitis?
A. External otitis is characterized by aural tenderness.
B. External otitis is usually accompanied by a high fever.
C. External otitis is usually related to an upper respiratory infection.
D. External otitis can be prevented by using cotton-tipped applicators to clean the ear.
Correct answer:
External otitis, also known as swimmer's ear, is an infection of the outer ear canal. It is often characterized by aural tenderness, which means that the ear is sensitive to touch and can be painful, especially when pressure is applied to the area. This tenderness is a hallmark symptom of external otitis and helps differentiate it from other ear conditions. Other common symptoms of external otitis include ear pain, itchiness, redness, and swelling of the ear canal. External otitis is usually not accompanied by a high fever, and it is not typically related to an upper respiratory infection. Using cotton-tipped applicators to clean the ear can actually increase the risk of developing external otitis by disrupting the natural protective barrier of the ear canal.
The mother of a 6-year-old boy who has recently had surgery for the removal of his tonsils and adenoids complains that he has begun sucking his thumb again. Which defense mechanism should the nurse include when responding to the mother?
A. Repression
B. Regression
C. Rationalization
D. Fantasy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Regression. Regression is a common defense mechanism where a child reverts to an earlier stage of development, such as thumb-sucking, to cope with stress. In this scenario, the 6-year-old boy is using thumb-sucking (a behavior typical of earlier developmental stages) as a way to deal with the stress of surgery. Repression (choice A) involves unconsciously blocking out thoughts or feelings, which is not applicable in this case. Rationalization (choice C) is a defense mechanism where illogical or unreasonable explanations are provided to justify behavior, which is not relevant here. Fantasy (choice D) refers to the use of imagination to escape from reality, which is also not the appropriate defense mechanism for the situation described.
Which points should a nurse includes in the discharge teaching plan for a client after cardiac surgery?
A. Avoid showers and take tub bath until all incisions are healed
B. Notify the physician if a painless lump is felt at the top of the chest incision
C. Continue to wear support hose or elastic stockings during the night and remove them during the day
D. Sexual relations typically can be resumed in 2-4 weeks depending on tolerance for activity
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because it addresses the importance of notifying the physician about a painless lump at the top of the chest incision, which could indicate a serious complication like a seroma or hematoma. This is crucial for early detection and intervention.
A is incorrect because showers are generally allowed after cardiac surgery as long as the incisions are kept clean and dry.
C is incorrect because support hose or elastic stockings are typically recommended to be worn during the day and removed at night to prevent swelling and promote circulation.
D is incorrect because resuming sexual relations after cardiac surgery should be based on individual recovery and should be discussed with the healthcare provider, rather than a standard timeframe.
The nurse is caring for a client who is unable to void. The plan of care establishes an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document that indicates a successful outcome?
A. Demonstrates adequate fluid intake and output.
B. Verbalizes abdominal comfort without pressure.
C. Drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift.
D. Voids at least 1000 mL between 7 am and 3 pm.
Correct answer:
Step 1: The objective is for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm.
Step 2: Choice C states that the client drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift, totaling 1200 mL (240 mL x 5) which exceeds the required amount.
Step 3: Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it demonstrates successful achievement of the objective by ensuring the client has ingested enough fluid within the specified time frame.
Step 4: Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the specific objective of fluid intake set for the client. Option A focuses on intake and output, option B relates to abdominal comfort, and option D is about voiding, none of which directly address the specified objective of fluid ingestion.
A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic because of facial edema. He reports that he has been voiding small amounts of dark, cloudy, tea-colored urine. The parents state that their son had a sore throat 2 weeks earlier, but it has resolved. After assessing the child's vital signs and weight, what intervention should the nurse implement next?
A. Perform an otoscopic examination
B. Measure the child's abdominal girth
C. Collect a urine specimen for routine urinalysis
D. Obtain a blood specimen for serum electrolytes
Correct answer:
Collecting a urine specimen for routine urinalysis is the next appropriate intervention. The symptoms described, including facial edema and tea-colored urine, are indicative of glomerulonephritis, a condition affecting the kidneys. A urine specimen can help assess renal function and the presence of blood and protein in the urine, which are common in glomerulonephritis. Performing an otoscopic examination (Choice A) is not relevant to the presenting symptoms. Measuring the child's abdominal girth (Choice B) is not necessary at this point as it does not directly address the urinary symptoms. Obtaining a blood specimen for serum electrolytes (Choice D) may provide information about electrolyte imbalances but is not the most appropriate initial step in this case.
Nurse Cecile is teaching a female client about preventing osteoporosis. Which of the following teaching points is correct?
A. Obtaining an X-ray of the bones every 3 years is recommended to detect bone loss.
B. To avoid fractures, the client should avoid strenuous exercise.
C. The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide variety of foods.
D. Obtaining the recommended daily allowance of calcium requires taking a calcium supplement.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because it emphasizes the importance of obtaining the recommended daily allowance of calcium from a variety of foods. Calcium is essential for bone health and can be found in dairy products, leafy greens, nuts, and fortified foods. This teaching point promotes a balanced and healthy diet as a natural way to prevent osteoporosis.
Choice A is incorrect because routine X-rays are not recommended for detecting bone loss in osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect as regular exercise, including weight-bearing and resistance training, is beneficial for bone health and can help prevent fractures. Choice D is incorrect as it is possible to meet the daily calcium requirement through dietary sources without necessarily needing a calcium supplement.
What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?
A. Administer supplemental oxygen.
B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
C. Prepare the patient for a CT scan.
D. Start anticoagulant therapy as prescribed.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Administer supplemental oxygen. This is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism because it helps improve oxygenation and prevents further hypoxia. Oxygen therapy is crucial in stabilizing the patient's condition and should be initiated promptly.
Summary of other choices:
B: Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but administering oxygen takes precedence due to the immediate need for oxygenation.
C: While a CT scan is important for confirming the diagnosis, providing oxygen is more urgent to address the patient's hypoxia.
D: Starting anticoagulant therapy is a critical treatment for pulmonary embolism, but ensuring oxygenation is the immediate priority to stabilize the patient's condition.
A grandmother brings her 13-year-old grandson to you for evaluation. She noticed last week when he took off his shirt that his breastbone seemed collapsed. He seems embarrassed and tells you that it has been that way for quite a while. He states he has no symptoms from it and he just tries not to take off his shirt in front of anyone. He denies any shortness of breath, chest pain, or lightheadedness on exertion. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is in sixth grade and just moved in with his grandmother after his father was deployed to the Middle East. His mother died several years ago in a car accident. He states that he does not smoke and has never touched alcohol. On examination you see a teenage boy appearing his stated age. On visual examination of his chest, you see that the lower portion of the sternum is depressed. Auscultation of the lungs and heart are unremarkable. What disorder of the thorax best describes your findings?
A. Barrel chest
B. Funnel chest (pectus excavatum)
C. Pigeon chest (pectus carinatum)
D. Thoracic kyphoscoliosis
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Funnel chest (pectus excavatum). Pectus excavatum is characterized by a depressed or sunken appearance of the sternum, which matches the description provided in the case. In this condition, the chest wall is abnormally shaped inward. This can be a congenital condition or develop during growth spurts in adolescence. The lack of symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, or lightheadedness on exertion is consistent with pectus excavatum, as these symptoms are not typically associated with this condition. The other choices (A: Barrel chest, C: Pigeon chest, D: Thoracic kyphoscoliosis) do not match the specific findings described in the case and are not associated with the characteristic sternal depression seen in pectus excavatum.
The caregiver for a client with moderate to severe dementia tells the nurse, 'I'm exhausted. He wanders at night instead of sleeping, so I get no rest. I'm afraid to leave him during the day, so I have to take him to the grocery store and to the laundromat. When I'm busy there, he often wanders off. Still, I have to do it all.' The nurse recognizes the need to provide teaching for this caregiver. An appropriate outcome is that the caregiver will:
A. Develop strategies to ensure the client's safety.
B. Seek respite care to get a break.
C. Join a support group for caregivers.
D. None of the above.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Develop strategies to ensure the client's safety. This is the most appropriate outcome as it directly addresses the caregiver's concerns of the client wandering and ensures their safety. By developing strategies such as installing door alarms, creating a safe sleeping environment, and establishing a routine, the caregiver can mitigate the risks associated with wandering behavior.
Summary:
- B: Seek respite care to get a break: While respite care is important for caregiver well-being, it does not directly address the safety concerns of the client wandering.
- C: Join a support group for caregivers: While support groups can be beneficial for emotional support, they may not provide immediate solutions to ensure the client's safety.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 145 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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