RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 132
RN exams · clinical judgment
RN exams clinical judgment practice questionsset 132
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse is assessing the skin of a patient who has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which of the following will the nurse most likely observe?
A. Tinea capitis
B. Faint pink lesions on the temple and beard areas.
C. Erythematous scaly patch with sharp margins in the sacral area.
D. A circular red rash that radiates from a central dark-red area in the axilla region.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Erythematous scaly patch with sharp margins in the sacral area.
The correct answer is C: Erythematous scaly patch with sharp margins in the sacral area. In patients with AIDS, this presentation is most likely indicative of a common opportunistic infection called tinea corporis. This fungal infection often presents as erythematous scaly patches with well-defined borders. The location in the sacral area is also common due to the warm and moist environment.
Choice A, tinea capitis, is a fungal infection of the scalp and is not typically associated with AIDS. Choice B describes a presentation more indicative of a condition like seborrheic dermatitis rather than an AIDS-related skin manifestation. Choice D describes a presentation more typical of tinea corporis, which is not commonly seen in the axilla region in patients with AIDS.
Question 2
A Muslim patient has been admitted to the critical care unit with complications after childbirth. Based on the Synergy Model, which nurse would be the most inappropriate to assign to care for this patient?
A. New graduate female nurse
B. Most experienced female nurse
C. New graduate male nurse
D. Female nurse with postpartum experience
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — New graduate male nurse
Step-by-step rationale:
1. The Synergy Model emphasizes matching nurse competencies with patient needs.
2. A male nurse may not be culturally appropriate for a Muslim female patient due to religious beliefs.
3. Gender segregation is important in Islamic culture, especially concerning intimate care.
4. Therefore, assigning a new graduate male nurse to care for a Muslim female patient in critical condition is the most inappropriate choice.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect because being a new graduate does not impact cultural competence.
- Choice B is incorrect as experience does not necessarily make a nurse the best fit for a specific patient.
- Choice D is incorrect as postpartum experience is relevant, but cultural considerations are more critical in this scenario.
Question 3
A patient has sought care, stating that she developed hives overnight. The nurses inspection confirms the presence of urticaria. What type of allergic hypersensitivity reaction has the patient developed?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Type I
The correct answer is A: Type I hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction involves the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils, leading to symptoms like hives. It is characterized by the involvement of IgE antibodies. In this case, the patient developed hives quickly after exposure to the allergen, indicating an immediate hypersensitivity reaction typical of Type I. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are associated with different mechanisms and timeframes of hypersensitivity reactions. Type II involves antibody-mediated cell destruction, Type III involves immune complex deposition, and Type IV is a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells, none of which are consistent with the rapid onset of hives seen in this patient.
Question 4
The nurse is working to change negative social beliefs towards breastfeeding in a rural area using the UNICEF Socio-Ecological Model. At which level of this model is the nurse effecting change?
A. Individual
B. Community
C. Organizational/institutional
D. Policy/system and enabling environments
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Policy/system and enabling environments
The correct answer is D: Policy/system and enabling environments. The nurse is working at this level by influencing policies and systems to create an environment that supports breastfeeding. At this level, the nurse can implement changes that impact the broader community by promoting and facilitating breastfeeding-friendly practices.
A: Individual - This level focuses on changing beliefs and behaviors of individuals, not addressing broader social beliefs.
B: Community - This level involves influencing social norms and practices within a specific community, not addressing policies and systems.
C: Organizational/institutional - This level involves changes within specific organizations or institutions, not addressing broader policy changes needed for societal impact.
Question 5
What genetic tests are performed by a “Public Health Laboratory�
A. Newborn screening
B. Foodborne disease testing
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above Week 1 – Lecture 2
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Both of the above
The correct answer is C (Both of the above) because a Public Health Laboratory typically conducts genetic tests for both newborn screening and foodborne disease testing to monitor and prevent public health risks. Newborn screening helps identify genetic disorders in infants early on, while foodborne disease testing detects genetic markers in pathogens causing foodborne illnesses. Option A (Newborn screening) is correct as it is a common genetic test performed by Public Health Laboratories. Option B (Foodborne disease testing) is also correct as these labs play a crucial role in identifying and preventing foodborne illnesses. Option D (Neither of the above) is incorrect as Public Health Laboratories indeed perform both types of genetic tests to protect public health.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
During a detailed physical exam of your dyspneic 73-year-old female patient, you palpate small pockets of air in the subcutaneous tissue of the skin in the upper right region of her chest, just below her clavicle. Which of the following medical conditions is most likely to cause this abnormal finding?
A. Bacterial pneumonia
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Dry pleurisy
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Spontaneous pneumothorax. In this scenario, the presence of small pockets of air in the subcutaneous tissue of the chest indicates air escaping from the lung into the chest cavity, leading to pneumothorax. Spontaneous pneumothorax commonly presents with sudden chest pain and dyspnea, more prevalent in older individuals, like the patient described. Bacterial pneumonia (A) typically presents with fever, productive cough, and consolidation on lung auscultation. Dry pleurisy (C) refers to inflammation of the pleura without significant fluid accumulation, unlikely to cause subcutaneous emphysema. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (D) is characterized by progressive airflow limitation and is not directly associated with subcutaneous emphysema.
What is one way a nursing assistant can help a family respond to the death of a loved one?
A. Influencing the family with the NA's religion
B. Promptly reporting a request for a clergy visit
C. Isolating the family and friends
D. Judging past behavior to make the family feel better
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Promptly reporting a request for a clergy visit. This is the best choice because it shows empathy and support for the family's spiritual and emotional needs during a difficult time. It respects the family's beliefs and values, providing them with the necessary support from a clergy member. It helps the family cope with their grief and find comfort in their faith.
Choice A is incorrect as imposing personal religious beliefs on the family may not align with their own beliefs, causing discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as isolating the family and friends can lead to further emotional distress and hinder the grieving process. Choice D is incorrect as judging past behavior is not helpful and may cause additional emotional pain for the family.
A patient with asthma develops wheezing and shortness of breath after using a dry powder inhaler. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer a short-acting beta-agonist inhaler.
B. Assess the patient's peak flow reading.
C. Encourage the patient to drink warm fluids.
D. Notify the health care provider immediately.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Administer a short-acting beta-agonist inhaler. This is the priority action because wheezing and shortness of breath indicate an exacerbation of asthma, which requires immediate bronchodilation to relieve symptoms. Administering a short-acting beta-agonist inhaler helps open the airways quickly, providing rapid relief. Assessing the peak flow reading (B) can provide valuable information but is not the priority when the patient is experiencing acute symptoms. Encouraging the patient to drink warm fluids (C) may provide comfort but does not address the urgent need for bronchodilation. Notifying the health care provider immediately (D) is important but should not delay the administration of bronchodilator therapy for acute asthma exacerbation.
For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?
A. High-protein
B. High-carbohydrate
C. Low-protein
D. Low-fat
Correct answer:
For a patient with a history of liver disease, a low-fat diet is most appropriate. Liver disease can impair fat metabolism, leading to fat accumulation in the liver cells and worsening the condition. A low-fat diet helps reduce stress on the liver and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein diets may not be suitable for individuals with liver disease as they can increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. High-carbohydrate diets may lead to insulin resistance and fat accumulation in the liver. While protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, a balanced intake of high-quality protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health, making a low-protein diet not the most appropriate choice for all patients with liver disease.
A postpartum person is breastfeeding her newborn. What is the most important factor for successful breastfeeding in the early postpartum period?
A. encourage frequent feeding
B. encourage skin-to-skin contact
C. support the baby's latch
D. support early initiation of breastfeeding
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: encourage skin-to-skin contact. Skin-to-skin contact in the early postpartum period promotes bonding, regulates the baby's body temperature, and encourages successful breastfeeding by stimulating the baby's natural feeding instincts. It also helps in establishing a strong emotional connection between the parent and the newborn. Encouraging frequent feeding (choice A) is important, but skin-to-skin contact is crucial for successful breastfeeding initiation. Supporting the baby's latch (choice C) is essential, but skin-to-skin contact precedes and aids in achieving a proper latch. While supporting early initiation of breastfeeding (choice D) is beneficial, skin-to-skin contact enhances the initiation process and overall breastfeeding success.
A patient is unable to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart. The nurse would:
A. refer the patient to an ophthalmologist or optometrist for further evaluation.
B. assess whether the patient can count the nurse's fingers when they are placed in front of his or her eyes.
C. ask the patient to put on his or her reading glasses and attempt to read the Snellen chart again.
D. shorten the distance between the patient and the chart, and ask him or her to read the smallest line of print possible.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. Referring the patient to an ophthalmologist or optometrist is the appropriate action because the patient's inability to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart suggests significant visual impairment that requires professional evaluation. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not address the underlying cause of the vision issue. Option B focuses on a different method of assessment and does not provide a solution for the patient's visual acuity problem. Option C assumes the patient's vision issue can be corrected by reading glasses, which may not be the case for a 20/100 visual acuity. Option D is also incorrect as it only adjusts the testing distance and does not address the need for a comprehensive evaluation by an eye care specialist.
As a nurse discharges a patient, the patient gives the nurse a card of appreciation made in an arts and crafts group. What is the nurse's best action?
A. Recognize the effectiveness of the relationship and patient's thoughtfulness. Accept the card.
B. Inform the patient that accepting gifts violates policies of the facility. Decline the card.
C. Acknowledge the patient's transition through the termination phase but decline the card.
D. Accept the card and invite the patient to return to participate in other arts and crafts groups.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because it acknowledges the patient's thoughtfulness and the positive relationship between the nurse and patient. Accepting the card shows appreciation and fosters a sense of connection and trust. It also validates the patient's effort in making the card.
Choice B is incorrect because it focuses solely on facility policies and may come off as cold and uncaring, potentially damaging the nurse-patient relationship.
Choice C is incorrect because declining the card without acknowledging the patient's effort and the positive relationship may leave the patient feeling unappreciated.
Choice D is incorrect as it assumes the patient wants to return for other activities when the situation is about expressing gratitude for the current experience.
Your adult patient is experiencing a prolonged episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia but remains stable at the present time. He denies chest pain, shortness of breath, and his skin is warm and dry. He has failed to convert to a normal sinus rhythm after receiving the max dosage of adenosine in succession. What is your next step?
A. Administer verapamil
B. Administer procainamide
C. Obtain expert consultation about diagnosis and treatment
D. Administer Adenocard
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Administer procainamide. Procainamide is a Class I antiarrhythmic medication that can be used for the management of stable paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) when adenosine fails. Procainamide works by slowing conduction through the atrioventricular node and can help convert the patient to a normal sinus rhythm.
Administering verapamil (Choice A) can be risky in patients with PSVT as it can potentially worsen the condition and cause hypotension. Obtaining expert consultation (Choice C) is always a good practice, but in this scenario, immediate intervention is needed. Administering Adenocard (Choice D) is not recommended as the patient has already received the max dosage of adenosine without converting to normal sinus rhythm.
When examining a patient, the nurse can assess mental health by:
A. Examining the patient's electroencephalogram.
B. Observing the patient as he or she performs an IQ test.
C. Observing the patient and inferring health or dysfunction.
D. Examining the patient's response to a specific set of questions.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because observing the patient and inferring health or dysfunction allows the nurse to assess mental health holistically. This method considers various factors such as behavior, emotions, communication, and overall functioning. It provides a comprehensive view of the patient's mental well-being.
A: Examining the patient's electroencephalogram is more related to brain activity rather than mental health assessment.
B: Observing the patient as he or she performs an IQ test is limited to cognitive abilities and does not capture the full spectrum of mental health.
D: Examining the patient's response to a specific set of questions may not provide a complete picture of mental health as it focuses on specific aspects rather than overall assessment.
A patient with asthma develops wheezing and shortness of breath after using a dry powder inhaler. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer a short-acting beta-agonist inhaler.
B. Assess the patient's peak flow reading.
C. Encourage the patient to drink warm fluids.
D. Notify the health care provider immediately.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Administer a short-acting beta-agonist inhaler. This is the priority action because wheezing and shortness of breath indicate an exacerbation of asthma, which requires immediate bronchodilation to relieve symptoms. Administering a short-acting beta-agonist inhaler helps open the airways quickly, providing rapid relief. Assessing the peak flow reading (B) can provide valuable information but is not the priority when the patient is experiencing acute symptoms. Encouraging the patient to drink warm fluids (C) may provide comfort but does not address the urgent need for bronchodilation. Notifying the health care provider immediately (D) is important but should not delay the administration of bronchodilator therapy for acute asthma exacerbation.
RN exams clinical judgment practice questions, set 132 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
