RN exams cardiovascular practice questions set 28

Correct answer:

The correct answer is A: Cor pulmonale. This condition is characterized by right ventricle failure due to increased pulmonary pressure from chronic lung disease. Step 1: Chronic lung disease causes increased pressure in the lungs. Step 2: The increased pressure in the lungs leads to the right ventricle of the heart working harder to pump blood through the lungs. Step 3: Over time, this increased workload can cause right ventricular failure, known as cor pulmonale. Summary: B is incorrect as pulmonary embolism is a sudden blockage of an artery in the lungs. C is incorrect as aortic stenosis involves narrowing of the aortic valve, affecting the left ventricle. D is incorrect as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a genetic condition causing thickening of the heart muscle.

Correct answer:

Step-by-step rationale for why choice B (Validol) is the correct answer: 1. Validol contains menthol, which acts as a reflex coronary dilator. 2. Menthol stimulates cold receptors in the oral cavity, leading to vasodilation. 3. Vasodilation in the coronary arteries increases blood flow to the heart. 4. This helps relieve angina symptoms by improving blood supply to the heart muscle. Summary: - A: Dipyridamole is a vasodilator but acts through adenosine receptor stimulation, not reflex coronary dilation. - C: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that reduces heart rate and contractility but does not cause reflex coronary dilation. - D: Alinidine is a central alpha-2 adrenoceptor agonist, which reduces sympathetic outflow but does not directly cause reflex coronary dilation.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is B because during an exercise echocardiogram, the client typically exercises on a treadmill to stress the heart. This helps evaluate how the heart functions under physical exertion. After exercising, the client immediately undergoes an echocardiogram to assess the heart's response to stress. This test provides valuable information about heart function during activity. Choice A is incorrect because lying on the back is not part of the standard procedure for an exercise echocardiogram. Choice C is incorrect as lying on the right side is not a common position for this test. Choice D is incorrect because electrocardiographic monitoring is essential during an exercise echocardiogram to assess the heart's electrical activity throughout the test.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is D: Lymphocyte predominance. In this type of Hodgkin's lymphoma, the typical Reed-Sternberg cells are absent or rare. Instead, popcorn cells (lymphocytic and histiocytic cells) are seen among benign lymphocytes. This is characteristic of lymphocyte predominance subtype. A: Nodular sclerosis - characterized by lacunar Reed-Sternberg cells in a background of collagen bands. B: Mixed cellularity - characterized by numerous Reed-Sternberg cells, eosinophils, plasma cells, and histiocytes in a background of mixed inflammatory cells. C: Lymphocyte depleted - characterized by few Reed-Sternberg cells in a background of fibrosis and few inflammatory cells. Therefore, based on the description provided, choice D is the most appropriate answer.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is D: Decreased reabsorption of Ca2+ in the loop of Henle. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na+/K+/2Cl- co-transporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, leading to decreased reabsorption of Na+ and Ca2+. This leads to an increase in the excretion of Ca2+ in the urine, resulting in metabolic alkalosis due to loss of H+ ions in exchange for Na+ and Ca2+. A: Increased reabsorption of uric acid is not directly related to furosemide-induced metabolic alkalosis. B: Increased delivery of Na+ to the distal tubule would lead to increased reabsorption of Na+ and water, which would not result in metabolic alkalosis. C: Mild inhibition of carbonic anhydrase would not directly cause furosemide-induced metabolic alkalosis.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is C: Neuromuscular blockade. 1. Neuromuscular blockade helps to achieve optimal ventilator synchrony by reducing patient-ventilator asynchrony and improving oxygenation in patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). 2. Despite sedation, the patient's restlessness and discomfort suggest inadequate ventilator synchrony, which can be addressed by neuromuscular blockade. 3. Continuous lateral rotation therapy (A) and prone positioning (D) are interventions for improving ventilation and oxygenation in ARDS but do not directly address patient-ventilator synchrony. 4. Guided imagery (B) is a non-pharmacological technique for relaxation and pain management, which may not address the underlying issue of ventilator synchrony in this case.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is B: "Take the bronchodilator inhaler first." The rationale for this instruction is that bronchodilators work by relaxing the muscles around the airways, allowing for easier breathing. Taking the bronchodilator first helps open up the airways, making it easier for the corticosteroid to reach deeper into the lungs and be more effective. If the corticosteroid is taken first, it may not reach the lower airways as effectively. Choice A is incorrect because taking the corticosteroid first may not optimize the effectiveness of both medications. Choice C is incorrect as it is important to take these inhalers in a specific order for optimal effect. Choice D is incorrect because the order of inhaler use can impact the effectiveness of the medications.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is C: The P wave is absent. In atrial fibrillation, the atria are quivering and not contracting effectively, leading to the absence of distinct P waves on the ECG. This is due to the chaotic electrical activity in the atria. Rationale: A: The P wave does not precede a long PR interval in atrial fibrillation. Instead, the irregular electrical signals cause variable PR intervals. B: The P wave falling on the previous T wave is not a characteristic of atrial fibrillation. The T wave represents ventricular repolarization, whereas the P wave reflects atrial depolarization. D: The P wave being peaked is not relevant to atrial fibrillation. In this arrhythmia, the absence of distinct P waves is a key feature due to the erratic atrial activity.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is B: "Take the bronchodilator inhaler first." The rationale for this instruction is that bronchodilators work by relaxing the muscles around the airways, allowing for easier breathing. Taking the bronchodilator first helps open up the airways, making it easier for the corticosteroid to reach deeper into the lungs and be more effective. If the corticosteroid is taken first, it may not reach the lower airways as effectively. Choice A is incorrect because taking the corticosteroid first may not optimize the effectiveness of both medications. Choice C is incorrect as it is important to take these inhalers in a specific order for optimal effect. Choice D is incorrect because the order of inhaler use can impact the effectiveness of the medications.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is A: Mr. Baker's blood pressure remains uncontrolled because he is not taking his medicine as ordered. Medication adherence is crucial for managing blood pressure. If Mr. Baker is not taking his medicine as prescribed, it can lead to uncontrolled blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D may also contribute to high blood pressure, but not taking medication as ordered is the most likely reason based on the information provided. Choice B focuses on diet, which is important but not the most likely reason in this scenario. Choice C mentions sedentary behavior, which can impact blood pressure but is not as critical as medication adherence. Choice D addresses smoking, which is a risk factor for high blood pressure but not the primary reason in this case.