RN exams cardiovascular practice questions, set 26
RN exams · cardiovascular
RN exams cardiovascular practice questionsset 26
You read heart failure, perfusion, and blood-pressure stems and decide what to do before the patient declines. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five cardiovascular questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A patient is isolated for pulmonary tuberculosis. The nurse notes that the patient seems to be angry, but he knows that this is a normal response to isolation. Which is the best intervention?
A. Explain the reasons for isolation procedures and provide meaningful stimulation.
B. Provide negative consequences for noncompliance.
C. Ignore the patient\'s behavior.
D. Report the patient\'s behavior to the doctor.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Explain the reasons for isolation procedures and provide meaningful stimulation.
The correct answer is A: 'Explain the reasons for isolation procedures and provide meaningful stimulation.' When a patient is isolated for pulmonary tuberculosis, it is common for them to experience feelings of anger and frustration due to the isolation. By explaining the reasons for the isolation procedures, the nurse can help the patient understand the necessity of these measures for their health and the health of others. Providing meaningful stimulation can help alleviate feelings of boredom and loneliness that often accompany isolation, improving the patient's overall well-being. Options B and C are not appropriate as negative consequences or ignoring the patient's behavior can exacerbate negative feelings. Option D is not the best intervention as reporting the patient's behavior to the doctor does not address the underlying emotional needs of the patient. Therefore, the best course of action is to provide education and support to the patient during this challenging time.
Question 2
The nurse is caring for a patient with advanced AIDS. While collecting data, the nurse notes a weight loss of several pounds, poor food consumption, and complaints of no appetite. Based on these findings, the nurse should carefully monitor the patient for the development of which problem?
A. Dehydration
B. Malnutrition
C. Anasarca
D. Cachexia
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Anasarca
The correct answer is C: "Anasarca." Anasarca is a severe and generalized edema that can occur in patients with advanced AIDS due to the combination of factors such as weight loss, poor food consumption, and decreased appetite. This condition results in fluid accumulation in various parts of the body, leading to significant swelling. Dehydration (option A) is not the most immediate concern in this case as the patient's symptoms indicate fluid retention rather than fluid loss. Malnutrition (option B) is a possible consequence of poor food consumption but does not directly relate to the presented symptoms of weight loss and decreased appetite. Cachexia (option D) refers to a wasting syndrome characterized by weight loss, muscle atrophy, and weakness, but anasarca is more specific to the fluid accumulation seen in this patient. Therefore, careful monitoring for the development of anasarca is essential in this scenario.
Question 3
The nurse is educating a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?
A. Apply fragrance-free lotion to dry areas twice daily.
B. Avoid direct sunlight exposure.
C. Take anti-inflammatory medications as prescribed.
D. Increase calcium intake.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Apply fragrance-free lotion to dry areas twice daily.
The correct answer is A. Patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) often have sensitive skin that can be aggravated by fragrances. Applying fragrance-free lotion to dry areas helps prevent skin irritation and maintains skin hydration. This is crucial in managing the skin symptoms associated with SLE. While avoiding direct sunlight exposure (option B) is important due to photosensitivity in SLE, keeping the skin moisturized with fragrance-free lotion takes precedence in the teaching plan. Taking anti-inflammatory medications as prescribed (option C) is essential for managing inflammation in SLE, but skin care is also important for overall well-being. Increasing calcium intake (option D) may be important for some SLE patients, but it is not the most critical information to include in the teaching plan for a patient with SLE.
Question 4
A nurse is teaching a client about managing chronic kidney disease. What dietary restriction is important?
A. Limit potassium-rich foods
B. Increase protein intake
C. Limit phosphorus intake
D. Increase calcium intake
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Limit phosphorus intake
The correct answer is C: Limit phosphorus intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to filter phosphorus effectively, leading to a buildup in the blood. High levels of phosphorus can cause bone and heart problems. Therefore, limiting phosphorus intake through dietary restrictions is crucial in managing chronic kidney disease. Potassium-rich foods should be limited in renal failure, but the primary concern related to dietary restriction in chronic kidney disease is phosphorus. Increasing protein intake is typically not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to the burden it places on the kidneys. While calcium intake is important for bone health, excessive calcium can be harmful in kidney disease. Therefore, the most important dietary restriction in this scenario is limiting phosphorus intake.
Question 5
When giving care to a 30-year-old Hispanic male, which action can most likely be attributed to the patient\'s cultural beliefs about pain?
A. The patient maintains a stoic affect about pain.
B. The patient openly discusses his pain.
C. The patient refuses pain medication.
D. The patient expresses anger about his pain.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — The patient maintains a stoic affect about pain.
In many Hispanic cultures, individuals are often taught to endure pain without complaint as a sign of strength and resilience. This cultural value of stoicism is commonly observed in Hispanic patients, where they may downplay or suppress their pain to avoid burdening others or appearing weak. Therefore, a 30-year-old Hispanic male maintaining a stoic affect about pain is more likely to align with his cultural beliefs about pain. Openly discussing pain (option B) may not be culturally typical, while refusing pain medication (option C) or expressing anger about pain (option D) may not necessarily be attributed to cultural beliefs for Hispanic individuals. This understanding of cultural norms can help healthcare providers deliver more sensitive and effective care to patients from diverse backgrounds.
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Question 6
The nurse is working in a trauma unit and is accidentally stuck with an IV needle following venipuncture of the patient. What is the nurse\'s first action?
A. Report the incident to the nursing supervisor.
B. Wash the punctured area with soap and water.
C. Call the patient\'s physician.
D. Go to the emergency room.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: 'Go to the emergency room.' When a healthcare worker is accidentally stuck with a needle, it is crucial to seek immediate medical evaluation to assess the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens. Going to the emergency room allows for prompt evaluation, potential post-exposure prophylaxis, and documentation of the incident. Reporting the incident to the nursing supervisor (option A) is important, but the immediate priority is the nurse's health. Washing the punctured area with soap and water (option B) is a good practice for wound care but does not address the potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens. Calling the patient's physician (option C) is not the appropriate action in this situation as the nurse's health and safety are the immediate concerns.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is having constant nociceptor pain. Which intervention best addresses the patient\'s pain during the perception phase of pain?
A. Engage the patient in conversation regarding his family, hobbies, and plans following discharge from the facility.
B. Administer prescribed medications.
C. Perform relaxation techniques.
D. Distract the patient with activities.
Correct answer:
Engaging the patient in conversation regarding his family, hobbies, and plans following discharge from the facility is the best intervention during the perception phase of nociceptor pain. This intervention helps to distract the patient's mind from focusing on the pain by redirecting their attention to positive and engaging topics. By promoting social interaction and stimulating the patient's interests, it can effectively reduce the perception of pain. Administering medications may address the nociceptor pain physically but may not fully address the perception of pain. Relaxation techniques and distracting activities can also be helpful interventions, but engaging the patient in meaningful conversation is specifically beneficial during the perception phase of nociceptor pain.
A 14-year-old Syrian male with beta thalassemia major has relocated to your community as a refugee. He has been receiving chronic transfusion therapy in Turkey for the past 3 years. On his first visit, you notice that his height is below the fifth percentile. He has skin discoloration and hepatosplenomegaly. His mother reports they have not had regular access to chelation therapy. Laboratory testing shows a serum ferritin of 6,200 ng/mL. A cardiac MRI shows grossly normal cardiac function but a T2* value of 9 ms. What is the most likely cause of his short stature?
A. Lack of regular blood transfusion causing growth failure
B. Cirrhosis and liver failure
C. Ineffective erythropoiesis and chronic anemia
D. Growth hormone deficiency due to iron deposition in the pituitary
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Growth hormone deficiency due to iron deposition in the pituitary. Iron deposition in the pituitary gland can lead to impaired production and secretion of growth hormone, resulting in short stature. This is a known complication of beta thalassemia major. The patient's elevated serum ferritin levels and T2* value of 9 ms indicate iron overload, which can cause damage to organs including the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the patient's growth failure is primarily due to the impact of iron deposition on the pituitary gland rather than lack of transfusion, cirrhosis, or ineffective erythropoiesis. Regular chelation therapy is essential to prevent iron overload and its complications in patients with beta thalassemia major.
A hospitalized client has a platelet count of 58,000/mm3 (58 × 109/L). What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Encourage high-protein foods.
B. Institute neutropenic precautions.
C. Limit visitors to healthy adults.
D. Place the client on safety precautions.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Place the client on safety precautions. A platelet count of 58,000/mm3 is considered low (normal range is 150,000-450,000/mm3). This places the client at risk for bleeding. Safety precautions involve preventing injuries that could lead to bleeding, such as falls, bumps, or cuts. This is crucial to prevent complications like spontaneous bleeding. Encouraging high-protein foods (choice A) is important for overall health but not directly related to managing low platelet count. Neutropenic precautions (choice B) are for clients with low white blood cell counts, not low platelet counts. Limiting visitors (choice C) to healthy adults is important for infection control but not directly related to preventing bleeding in a client with low platelet count.
Which drug is effective in managing mild to moderate hypotension?
A. Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
B. Amiodraone (Cordarone)
C. Ibutilide (Covert)
D. Milrione
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine). Phenylephrine is a potent vasoconstrictor that can increase blood pressure, making it effective in managing mild to moderate hypotension. It works by stimulating alpha-adrenergic receptors, leading to vasoconstriction and increased peripheral vascular resistance, ultimately raising blood pressure.
Other choices are incorrect:
B: Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic drug used to treat irregular heart rhythms, not hypotension.
C: Ibutilide is a class III antiarrhythmic agent used for maintaining normal heart rhythm, not for managing hypotension.
D: Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases cardiac contractility and vasodilation, primarily used in heart failure, not specifically for managing hypotension.
A nurse who administers antipsychotic medication should be ready to explain which neurotransmitters and how they are processed in the brain?
A. Dopamine and GABA
B. Serotonin and dopamine
C. Synaptic neurovesicles and neurodendrites
D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors and serotonin
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Serotonin and dopamine. Antipsychotic medications work by affecting serotonin and dopamine levels in the brain. Dopamine is involved in regulating emotions and movement, while serotonin plays a role in mood regulation. Understanding how these neurotransmitters are processed is crucial for explaining the mechanism of action of antipsychotic drugs.
Choice A is incorrect because GABA is not typically targeted by antipsychotic medications. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to structures rather than neurotransmitters. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions monoamine oxidase inhibitors, which are a different class of drugs than antipsychotics, and serotonin, which is relevant but not the primary neurotransmitter targeted by antipsychotic medications.
A 14-year-old Syrian male with beta thalassemia major has relocated to your community as a refugee. He has been receiving chronic transfusion therapy in Turkey for the past 3 years. On his first visit, you notice that his height is below the fifth percentile. He has skin discoloration and hepatosplenomegaly. His mother reports they have not had regular access to chelation therapy. Laboratory testing shows a serum ferritin of 6,200 ng/mL. A cardiac MRI shows grossly normal cardiac function but a T2* value of 9 ms. What is the most likely cause of his short stature?
A. Lack of regular blood transfusion causing growth failure
B. Cirrhosis and liver failure
C. Ineffective erythropoiesis and chronic anemia
D. Growth hormone deficiency due to iron deposition in the pituitary
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Growth hormone deficiency due to iron deposition in the pituitary. Iron deposition in the pituitary gland can lead to impaired production and secretion of growth hormone, resulting in short stature. This is a known complication of beta thalassemia major. The patient's elevated serum ferritin levels and T2* value of 9 ms indicate iron overload, which can cause damage to organs including the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the patient's growth failure is primarily due to the impact of iron deposition on the pituitary gland rather than lack of transfusion, cirrhosis, or ineffective erythropoiesis. Regular chelation therapy is essential to prevent iron overload and its complications in patients with beta thalassemia major.
A patient is receiving heparin therapy as part of the treatment for a pulmonary embolism. The nurse monitors the results of which laboratory test to check the drug’s effectiveness?
A. Bleeding times
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C. Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR)
D. Vitamin K levels
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is specifically used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness by measuring the blood's clotting time. Heparin works by inhibiting blood clot formation, so monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation.
Incorrect choices:
A: Bleeding times - This test assesses how long it takes for blood to clot, but it does not specifically monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness.
C: Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR) - This test is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.
D: Vitamin K levels - Monitoring vitamin K levels is not relevant to assessing heparin therapy's effectiveness in preventing clot formation.
A hospitalized client has a platelet count of 58,000/mm3 (58 × 109/L). What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Encourage high-protein foods.
B. Institute neutropenic precautions.
C. Limit visitors to healthy adults.
D. Place the client on safety precautions.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Place the client on safety precautions. A platelet count of 58,000/mm3 is considered low (normal range is 150,000-450,000/mm3). This places the client at risk for bleeding. Safety precautions involve preventing injuries that could lead to bleeding, such as falls, bumps, or cuts. This is crucial to prevent complications like spontaneous bleeding. Encouraging high-protein foods (choice A) is important for overall health but not directly related to managing low platelet count. Neutropenic precautions (choice B) are for clients with low white blood cell counts, not low platelet counts. Limiting visitors (choice C) to healthy adults is important for infection control but not directly related to preventing bleeding in a client with low platelet count.
Which of the following are physiological effects of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) used in the treatment of acute respiratory distress syndrom e (ARDS)? (Select all that apply.)
A. Increase functional residual capacity
B. Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli
C. Improve arterial oxygenation
D. Open collapsed alveoli
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Increase functional residual capacity. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) helps increase the functional residual capacity by keeping the alveoli open at the end of expiration. This prevents alveolar collapse, improves ventilation-perfusion matching, and enhances oxygenation.
B: Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP actually helps prevent the collapse of all alveoli, not just unstable ones.
C: Improve arterial oxygenation - This is partially correct, but the primary mechanism through which PEEP improves oxygenation is by increasing functional residual capacity.
D: Open collapsed alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP helps prevent alveolar collapse rather than actively opening already collapsed alveoli.
RN exams cardiovascular practice questions, set 26 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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