LPN exams maternity and newborn practice questions, set 10
LPN exams · maternity and newborn
LPN exams maternity and newborn practice questionsset 10
You work labor, postpartum, and newborn safety items the way maternity exams write the next action. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five maternity and newborn questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A pregnant patient has received the results of her triple-screen testing and it is positive. She provides you with a copy of the test results that she obtained from the lab. What would the nurse anticipate as being implemented in the patient's plan of care?
A. No further testing is indicated at this time because results are normal.
B. Refer to the physician for additional testing.
C. Validate the results with the lab facility.
D. Repeat the test in 2 weeks and have the patient return for her regularly scheduled prenatal visit.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Refer to the physician for additional testing.
The correct answer is B: Refer to the physician for additional testing. When a triple-screen test is positive in a pregnant patient, it indicates an increased risk of certain conditions such as neural tube defects or chromosomal abnormalities. Therefore, the appropriate course of action is to refer the patient to a physician for further diagnostic testing, such as amniocentesis or ultrasound, to confirm or rule out these conditions.
Choice A is incorrect because a positive result on a triple-screen test does not indicate that results are normal; it suggests the need for further investigation. Choice C is incorrect because validating the results with the lab facility does not address the need for additional diagnostic testing. Choice D is incorrect because waiting 2 weeks to repeat the test and returning for a regular prenatal visit may delay necessary interventions or treatment for the patient.
Question 2
The nurse has made it a goal to increase the rate at which women begin prenatal care in the first trimester. The nurse relates this decision to national goals for better maternal and infant outcomes. What guidelines will the nurse use to guide her maternal health goals?
A. WHO Maternal care guidelines
B. State Practice Acts
C. AWHONN white papers
D. Healthy People 2020
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Healthy People 2020
The correct answer is D: Healthy People 2020. The nurse will use Healthy People 2020 guidelines because they are evidence-based, nationally recognized objectives that focus on improving the health and well-being of individuals, families, and communities. These guidelines specifically address maternal and infant health outcomes, making them the most relevant choice for the nurse's goal.
Incorrect Choices:
A: WHO Maternal care guidelines - While WHO guidelines are important, they are not specific to the national goals and objectives the nurse is trying to align with.
B: State Practice Acts - State Practice Acts govern the scope of practice for nurses and do not provide specific guidelines for maternal health goals.
C: AWHONN white papers - AWHONN provides valuable resources, but they may not be as comprehensive or nationally recognized as Healthy People 2020 for setting maternal health goals.
Question 3
A pregnant woman weighs 90.9 kg. The nurse is educating the patient on complications that the patient may be at risk for during pregnancy. Which response by the patient indicates that she understands?
A. Due to my weight, there is a possibility that I may develop gestational diabetes.
B. I am not overweight, but I am still at risk for gestational diabetes.
C. My mother had preeclampsia during one of her pregnancies.
D. I will need to do a glucose tolerance test in my second trimester.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Due to my weight, there is a possibility that I may develop gestational diabetes.
The correct answer is A because maternal obesity is a risk factor for gestational diabetes. The patient's weight of 90.9 kg puts her at an increased risk. Gestational diabetes is more likely to occur in overweight or obese pregnant women. The patient's understanding that her weight increases the possibility of developing gestational diabetes demonstrates comprehension of the risk factors.
Choice B is incorrect because weight alone is a significant risk factor for gestational diabetes, regardless of whether the patient is considered overweight or not.
Choice C is incorrect as a family history of preeclampsia is a risk factor for preeclampsia, not gestational diabetes.
Choice D is incorrect because while a glucose tolerance test may be part of prenatal care, it does not specifically address the patient's understanding of the risk factors associated with her weight and gestational diabetes.
Question 4
Which client is at greatest risk for early PPH?
A. Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress
B. Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being
C. Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor
D. Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being
The correct answer is B because a woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate is at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) due to the increased risk of placental abruption, coagulopathy, and uterine atony associated with preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate use. Preeclampsia can lead to poor placental perfusion, increasing the risk of hemorrhage during and after delivery. Magnesium sulfate can also affect blood clotting mechanisms, further increasing the risk of excessive bleeding. The other choices are less likely to be at greatest risk for early PPH. Choice A involves a primiparous woman with cesarean delivery, which may have controlled bleeding. Choice C is a multiparous woman with a relatively short labor duration, which is not a significant risk factor for early PPH. Choice D is a primigravida with preterm twins, which does not inherently increase the risk of early PPH
Question 5
A patient in her first trimester complains of nausea and vomiting. The patient asks, “Why is
this happening?†What is the nurse’s best response?
A. "It is due to an increase in gastric motility."
B. "It may be due to changes in hormones."
C. "It is related to an increase in glucose levels."
D. "It is caused by a decrease in gastric secretions."
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — "It may be due to changes in hormones."
The correct answer is B: "It may be due to changes in hormones." During the first trimester of pregnancy, hormonal changes, particularly an increase in human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and estrogen levels, can trigger nausea and vomiting. This is known as morning sickness. These hormonal fluctuations can affect the gastrointestinal system, leading to symptoms of nausea and vomiting.
Choice A (increase in gastric motility) is incorrect because nausea and vomiting in pregnancy are more commonly attributed to hormonal changes rather than an increase in gastric motility.
Choice C (increase in glucose levels) is also incorrect as there is no direct link between elevated glucose levels and nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
Choice D (decrease in gastric secretions) is incorrect as there is no evidence to support that a decrease in gastric secretions causes nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
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Question 6
The nurse screens for risk factors such as an infant in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU), difficulty in role transition, birth complications, unmet social and physical needs, and lack of partner support for what complication?
A. maladaptive parenting
B. psychosis
C. postpartum depression
D. bipolar disorder
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: postpartum depression. Screening for risk factors such as a baby in the NICU, difficulty in role transition, birth complications, unmet social and physical needs, and lack of partner support are all associated with an increased risk for postpartum depression. Postpartum depression is a common complication that affects many new mothers and can have significant impacts on both the mother and the baby's well-being. It is important for healthcare providers to be vigilant in screening for these risk factors to identify and support mothers at risk for postpartum depression.
Summary:
A: maladaptive parenting - Not directly related to the risk factors listed.
B: psychosis - Not typically associated with the listed risk factors.
D: bipolar disorder - While bipolar disorder can occur postpartum, the listed risk factors are more specifically linked to postpartum depression.
The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who is 26 weeks gestation and has a history of gestational diabetes. Which of the following actions is most important for the nurse to monitor during this pregnancy?
A. Blood glucose levels and fetal growth
B. Urine protein levels and blood pressure
C. Maternal weight gain and diet
D. Fetal heart rate and activity patterns
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Blood glucose levels and fetal growth. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in managing gestational diabetes to prevent complications for both the mother and baby. High blood glucose levels can lead to macrosomia (excessive fetal growth). Monitoring fetal growth is important to ensure the baby is growing appropriately.
Choice B is incorrect because urine protein levels and blood pressure are typically monitored for preeclampsia, not specifically for a patient with gestational diabetes. Choice C is incorrect because while maternal weight gain and diet are important factors, monitoring blood glucose levels takes precedence in managing gestational diabetes. Choice D is incorrect because while fetal heart rate and activity patterns are important, monitoring blood glucose levels is more crucial in this scenario due to the patient's history of gestational diabetes.
A labor patient, gravida 2, para 1, at term has received meperidine (Demerol) for pain control during labor. Her most recent dose was 15 minutes ago and birth is now imminent. Maternal vital signs have been stable and the EFM tracing has not shown any baseline changes. Which medication does the nurse anticipate would be required in the birth room for administration?
A. Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B. Naloxone (Narcan)
C. Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
D. Oxygen
Correct answer:
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxytocin (Pitocin). Oxytocin is commonly given during the third stage of labor to help with uterine contractions and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Meperidine can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate needing oxytocin to assist with contractions after birth to minimize bleeding.
Summary of other choices:
B: Naloxone (Narcan) - This is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioids like meperidine. However, it is not typically needed if the newborn does not show signs of respiratory depression.
C: Bromocriptine (Parlodel) - This medication is not commonly used during labor and birth and is not indicated in this scenario.
D: Oxygen - While oxygen may be needed for the mother or newborn in certain situations, it is not directly related to the administration of meperidine or
Which description best explains the term reciprocal attachment behavior?
A. Behavior during the sensitive period when the infant is in the quiet alert stage
B. Positive feedback that the infant exhibits toward parents during the attachment process
C. Unidirectional behavior exhibited by the infant, initiated and enhanced by eye contact
D. Behavior by the infant during the sensitive period to elicit feelings of “falling in love†from the parents
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because reciprocal attachment behavior refers to the mutual and positive interactions between infants and their caregivers during the attachment process. This behavior involves the infant responding to the caregiver's actions with positive feedback, such as smiles, cooing, and seeking physical contact. This interaction strengthens the bond between the infant and caregiver.
Choice A is incorrect because it describes the infant's behavior during a specific stage (quiet alert stage) but does not capture the reciprocal nature of attachment behavior. Choice C is incorrect because reciprocal attachment behavior is not unidirectional and does not solely depend on eye contact. Choice D is incorrect because reciprocal attachment behavior is not about eliciting specific feelings from the parents but rather about building a strong, mutual bond between the infant and caregiver.
What is a risk factor for PPH found in the prenatal record?
A. primipara
B. rubella nonimmune
C. von Willebrand disorder
D. history of appendectomy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: von Willebrand disorder. This is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) as it can lead to abnormal bleeding during and after childbirth. von Willebrand disorder is a hereditary bleeding disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot properly. This can increase the likelihood of excessive bleeding during delivery, putting the mother at risk for PPH.
Choice A: primipara is incorrect, as being a first-time mother (primipara) is not a direct risk factor for PPH.
Choice B: rubella nonimmune is incorrect, as rubella immunity status is not directly related to the risk of PPH.
Choice D: history of appendectomy is incorrect, as a previous appendectomy is not a known risk factor for PPH.
In summary, the presence of von Willebrand disorder in the prenatal record is a significant risk factor for PPH due to its impact on blood clotting ability during childbirth.
A 20-year-old college student expresses concern over the recent appearance of genital warts, an assessment finding her primary care provider confirms as attributable to HPV infection. Which client education should be included?
A. It's important to start treatment as soon as possible, so you will receive a prescription for pills today.
B. There is a chance that the genital warts will clear up on their own without any treatment.
C. I recommend receiving an HPV vaccination today.
D. Unfortunately, this is going to greatly increase your chance of developing pelvic inflammatory disease.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: There is a chance that the genital warts will clear up on their own without any treatment.
Rationale:
1. Genital warts caused by HPV can sometimes resolve spontaneously without treatment.
2. This option emphasizes the possibility of self-resolution, which is a common occurrence.
3. Encouraging observation without immediate treatment aligns with current guidelines for managing HPV-related genital warts.
4. Avoiding unnecessary treatment helps prevent potential side effects and reduces healthcare costs.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Incorrect because immediate treatment is not always necessary for genital warts caused by HPV.
C: Incorrect because HPV vaccination does not treat existing HPV infections, including genital warts.
D: Incorrect because developing pelvic inflammatory disease is not directly related to the presence of genital warts caused by HPV.
Which is an expected characteristic of amniotic fluid?
A. Deep yellow color
B. Clear, with small white particles
C. Nitrazine test: acidic result
D. Absence of ferning
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Clear, with small white particles. Amniotic fluid is typically clear with small white particles, representing vernix caseosa. Vernix caseosa is a white, cheese-like substance that covers the skin of the fetus. It helps protect the skin and regulate body temperature. The presence of vernix particles in amniotic fluid is a normal and expected characteristic.
Incorrect choices:
A: Deep yellow color - Amniotic fluid is usually clear or slightly straw-colored. A deep yellow color may indicate the presence of meconium, which suggests fetal distress.
C: Nitrazine test: acidic result - Amniotic fluid is normally alkaline, not acidic. An acidic result may indicate infection.
D: Absence of ferning - Ferning is a characteristic pattern seen under a microscope in dried cervical mucus, not amniotic fluid. Absence of ferning in amniotic fluid is not a relevant characteristic.
A nurse is assessing a laboring person and notes the presence of meconium-stained amniotic fluid. What is the priority nursing action?
A. prepare for an emergency cesarean section
B. document the amount of meconium
C. notify the healthcare provider
D. prepare the person for a blood transfusion
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: prepare the person for a blood transfusion. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid indicates fetal distress, which can lead to hypoxia and potential blood loss in the laboring person. The priority action is to prepare for a potential blood transfusion to address any hemorrhage that may occur during delivery. This is crucial for ensuring the safety and well-being of both the laboring person and the baby.
Incorrect options:
A: Prepare for an emergency cesarean section - While meconium-stained amniotic fluid may indicate fetal distress, the priority is addressing potential maternal blood loss.
B: Document the amount of meconium - Documenting is important but not the priority when the person's health is at risk.
C: Notify the healthcare provider - While important, immediate action to address potential blood loss takes precedence over notifying the healthcare provider.
A nurse is providing prenatal care to a 24-week pregnant patient. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately?
A. Mild leg swelling and varicosities
B. Slight back pain and cramping
C. Severe headaches and visual disturbances
D. Increased appetite and weight gain
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Severe headaches and visual disturbances. These symptoms can indicate a serious condition such as preeclampsia, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Severe headaches and visual disturbances are signs of increased blood pressure, protein in the urine, and potential organ damage. Reporting these findings promptly allows for timely intervention.
Incorrect choices:
A: Mild leg swelling and varicosities are common in pregnancy and typically not urgent unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
B: Slight back pain and cramping are common discomforts in pregnancy and may not indicate a serious issue unless they are severe or persistent.
D: Increased appetite and weight gain are expected during pregnancy and may not require immediate reporting unless there are other concerning symptoms present.
The lactation nurse takes a phone call from a mother who is breastfeeding her 2-month-old infant. The mother reports an area of redness and warmth on the breast and a painful burning sensation when breastfeeding. Which statement by the nurse is correct if mastitis is suspected?
A. If your nipples are cracked, you will need to stop breastfeeding.
B. Pump your milk and throw it away until the infection is gone.
C. The baby gave you an infection and needs to be on antibiotics.
D. Continuing to breastfeed will help clear up the condition.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Continuing to breastfeed will help clear up the condition.
Rationale:
1. Continuing to breastfeed helps to empty the breast and prevent milk stasis, which can worsen mastitis.
2. Breastfeeding helps maintain milk production and prevents engorgement, which can exacerbate the infection.
3. Breast milk has antibacterial properties that can help fight the infection.
4. Stopping breastfeeding abruptly can lead to more serious complications like abscess formation.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Stopping breastfeeding abruptly can lead to complications and does not address the underlying infection.
B: Incorrect. Pumping and throwing away milk does not address the underlying infection and can lead to decreased milk supply.
C: Incorrect. Mastitis is not caused by the baby, and antibiotics are not always necessary if managed promptly with breastfeeding and self-care.
About these LPN exams maternity and newborn questions
LPN exams maternity and newborn practice questions, set 10 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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