You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Why does the nurse assess the SDOH when caring for individuals and their families in the community?
A. The SDOH have a significant impact on the health, wellness, and quality of life of individuals and families
B. By assessing the SDOH, the nurse can standardize interventions based on where the individual and family reside
C. Because nursing is founded on the principle of social justice
D. The nurse wants to investigate the reasons why certain individuals and families have asthma
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — The SDOH have a significant impact on the health, wellness, and quality of life of individuals and families
Rationale for why choice A is correct:
1. The social determinants of health (SDOH) encompass factors like income, education, housing, and environment, which significantly influence health outcomes.
2. By assessing the SDOH, the nurse can identify underlying issues impacting health and tailor interventions to address these specific needs.
3. Understanding how SDOH affect individuals and families helps in promoting health equity and improving overall well-being.
Summary of why the other choices are incorrect:
B: Assessing SDOH is not about standardizing interventions based on location but rather individualizing care based on specific social factors.
C: While social justice is a core nursing value, assessing SDOH is more about addressing disparities and promoting health equity than solely focusing on justice.
D: Investigating reasons for health conditions like asthma is important but does not encompass the broad scope of SDOH assessment.
Question 2
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oxygen therapy for pneumonia. How should the nurse best assess whether the patient is hypoxemic?
A. Assess the patients level of consciousness (LOC)
B. Assess the patients extremities for signs of cyanosis
C. Assess the patients oxygen saturation level
D. Review the patients hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell levels
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Assess the patients oxygen saturation level
Assessing hypoxemia, a deficiency in oxygen reaching tissues, requires a direct, real-time measure of oxygenation, making pulse oximetry (oxygen saturation) the best bedside method. It provides an immediate percentage of oxygenated hemoglobin, typically aiming above 92%, reflecting lung function and oxygen delivery effectiveness in pneumonia. Level of consciousness may indicate severe hypoxia if altered, but it's nonspecific and late-stage. Cyanosis, a bluish tint in extremities, is unreliable as it appears only with significant desaturation (below 80%) and varies with skin tone or circulation. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and RBC levels assess oxygen-carrying capacity, not current oxygenation status, and require lab processing, delaying intervention. Pulse oximetry, often paired with arterial blood gases for confirmation, allows the nurse to quickly adjust oxygen therapy, ensuring timely correction of hypoxemia in this acute respiratory condition.
Question 3
Cristina undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, N0, M0. What does this classification mean?
A. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis
B. Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis
C. Can't assess tumor or regional lymph nodes and no evidence of metastasis
D. Carcinoma in situ, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis
The correct answer is B: Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis.
1. TIS indicates carcinoma in situ, meaning abnormal cells are present but have not invaded nearby tissues.
2. N0 indicates no abnormal regional lymph nodes, suggesting no spread of cancer to the lymph nodes.
3. M0 indicates no evidence of distant metastasis, indicating the cancer has not spread to other parts of the body.
Therefore, the classification TIS, N0, M0 signifies that the lesion is in the early stage, confined to its original location without lymph node involvement or distant spread.
Incorrect choices:
A: Incorrect - TIS indicates carcinoma in situ, not no evidence of primary tumor.
C: Incorrect - The TNM classification is clear, not "Can't assess tumor or regional lymph nodes."
D: Incorrect - TIS does not indicate ascending degrees of distant metastasis, and N0 indicates no abnormal lymph nodes, not "
Question 4
Neoliberalism includes which group of the following?
A. Free markets, free trade, financial liberalization
B. Free markets, trade, increased state governance
C. Free markets, trade, minimal state governance
D. Restricted markets, free trade, increased state governance
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Free markets, free trade, financial liberalization
The correct answer is A because neoliberalism advocates for free markets, free trade, and financial liberalization. Free markets promote competition, efficiency, and innovation. Free trade allows for the movement of goods and services across borders without restrictions. Financial liberalization involves reducing regulations on financial institutions.
Choice B is incorrect as it includes "increased state governance," which goes against the principles of neoliberalism that aim for limited government intervention in the economy. Choice C is also incorrect because neoliberalism does not advocate for minimal state governance but rather for limited intervention in the market. Choice D is incorrect as it includes "restricted markets," which contradicts the idea of free markets in neoliberalism.
Overall, the correct choice aligns with the core principles of neoliberalism, emphasizing market freedom, trade openness, and financial deregulation.
Question 5
Crises that occur as an individual moves from one developmental level to another are called which of the following?
A. Reactive crises
B. Recurring crises
C. Situational crises
D. Maturational crises
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Maturational crises
Maturational crises occur as individuals transition between developmental stages, such as moving from adolescence to adulthood or from middle age to old age. These crises are tied to expected life changes and challenges that arise as one matures, distinguishing them from other types. Reactive crises typically imply a response to an external trigger rather than a developmental shift. Recurring crises suggest repetition without a clear developmental link, while situational crises arise from specific, often unexpected events like job loss or illness. Maturational crises, however, are inherently tied to growth and development, making them the correct fit for this question. This type of crisis is a normal part of human progression, often requiring adaptation to new roles or responsibilities, and is distinct from externally driven or random events. Understanding this helps nurses anticipate and support patients through predictable life transitions.
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Question 6
The patient experienced a surgical procedure, and Betadine was utilized as the surgical prep. Two days postoperatively, the nurse’s assessment indicates that the incision is red and has a small amount of purulent drainage. The patient reports tenderness at the incision site. The patient’s temperature is 100.5° F, and the WBC is 10,500/mm3. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Plan to change the surgical dressing during the shift.
B. Utilize SBAR to notify the primary health care provider.
C. Reevaluate the temperature and white blood cell count in 4 hours.
D. Check to see what solution was used for skin preparation in surgery.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Utilize SBAR to notify the primary health care provider. This is the first action the nurse should take because the patient is exhibiting signs of a surgical site infection (redness, purulent drainage, tenderness, elevated temperature, and increased WBC count), which requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Notifying the provider promptly allows for timely intervention to prevent complications.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect:
A: Planning to change the surgical dressing during the shift is not the priority as the patient's symptoms indicate a potential infection that needs immediate attention.
C: Reevaluating the temperature and WBC count in 4 hours delays necessary intervention for a suspected infection.
D: Checking the solution used for skin preparation in surgery is not urgent compared to notifying the provider about the concerning signs of infection.
The nurse would recognize which of these as the five rights of medication administration?
A. Right patient, right teaching, right form of drug, right transcription, right response
B. Right room, right time, right storage, right chart, right signature
C. Right drug, right time, right patient, right dose, right route
D. Right drawer, right documentation, right dosage calculation, right drug preparation, right pharmacy
Correct answer:
The five rights of medication administration are a foundational framework in nursing to ensure safe and effective drug delivery. These rights focus on verifying that the medication is given to the intended individual, using the prescribed substance, in the appropriate amount, through the proper method, and at the designated time. This systematic checklist helps prevent errors that could harm the patient, such as giving the wrong drug or dose. Other options may include elements relevant to nursing practice, like documentation or teaching, but they deviate from the universally accepted five rights. For instance, teaching is part of patient education, not a core right, and room or storage considerations are logistical, not directly tied to administration. The correct combination emphasizes patient safety and precision, reflecting best practices in healthcare settings and aligning with protocols designed to protect both the patient and the nurse.
A nurse is assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings would be a priority for intervention?
A. Weight loss of 2 pounds over the past week.
B. Denial of the need for nutrition rehabilitation.
C. Body image disturbance and self-imposed starvation.
D. Refusal to participate in social activities.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Body image disturbance and self-imposed starvation. This is a priority because it directly addresses the core issues of anorexia nervosa and poses immediate risks to the patient's health. Body image disturbance contributes to the patient's self-imposed starvation, which can lead to severe malnutrition and other serious complications. Addressing this issue is crucial for the patient's well-being.
A: Weight loss of 2 pounds over the past week is concerning but may not be an immediate priority compared to addressing the underlying psychological issues.
B: Denial of the need for nutrition rehabilitation is important to address but may not pose an immediate threat to the patient's health compared to self-imposed starvation.
D: Refusal to participate in social activities may be a consequence of anorexia nervosa but does not directly address the urgent need to address body image disturbance and self-imposed starvation.
A patient has been brought to the ED by the paramedics. The patient is suspected of having ARDS. What intervention should the nurse first anticipate?
A. Preparing to assist with intubating the patient
B. Setting up oxygen at 5 L/minute by nasal cannula
C. Performing deep suctioning
D. Setting up a nebulizer to administer corticosteroids
Correct answer:
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is a life-threatening condition marked by severe hypoxemia and diffuse lung injury, often requiring immediate airway and ventilatory support. The nurse should first anticipate preparing for intubation because ARDS patients typically progress to respiratory failure, necessitating mechanical ventilation to maintain oxygenation and ventilation when lung compliance drops. Oxygen at 5 L/minute via nasal cannula is insufficient for the profound hypoxemia of ARDS, which often requires high-flow oxygen or positive pressure ventilation. Deep suctioning addresses secretions but not the underlying oxygenation failure, and while corticosteroids may be considered later for inflammation, they are not the initial priority. Intubation ensures a secure airway and allows for precise ventilatory management, critical in ARDS where rapid deterioration is common, aligning with emergency protocols to stabilize the patient.
How should a healthcare professional care for a client approaching death with shortness of breath and noisy respirations?
A. Turn the client every 2 hours
B. Provide supplemental oxygen
C. Use a fan to reduce the feeling of breathlessness
D. Administer diuretics as prescribed
Correct answer:
In a palliative care setting, when caring for a client approaching death with symptoms of shortness of breath and noisy respirations, using a fan can help alleviate the sensation of breathlessness. This intervention can provide comfort by improving air circulation and reducing the perception of breathlessness. Turning the client every 2 hours may not directly address the respiratory distress caused by noisy respirations. Providing supplemental oxygen may not be indicated or effective in all cases, especially in end-of-life care where the focus is on comfort rather than aggressive interventions. Administering diuretics as prescribed would not be appropriate for addressing noisy respirations and shortness of breath in a dying client, as this may not be related to fluid overload or congestion. Therefore, the most appropriate action to help the client feel more comfortable in this situation is to use a fan to reduce the feeling of breathlessness.
An older adults unexplained weight loss of 15 pounds over the past 3 months has prompted a thorough o diagnostic workup. What is the nurses rationale for prioritizing biochemical assessment when appraising a persons nutritional status? N
A. It identifies abnormalities in the chemical structure of nutrients.
B. It predicts abnormal utilization ogf nutrients.
C. It reflects the tissue level of a given nutrient. n
D. It predicts metabolic abnormalities in nutritional intak
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because prioritizing biochemical assessment in nutritional status appraisal helps predict metabolic abnormalities in nutritional intake. By analyzing blood levels of key nutrients and metabolic markers, the nurse can identify deficiencies or excesses that indicate how well the body is utilizing nutrients. This information can guide interventions to correct imbalances and improve overall health.
Choice A is incorrect as it refers to identifying abnormalities in the chemical structure of nutrients, which is not directly related to predicting metabolic abnormalities in nutritional intake. Choice B is incorrect because predicting abnormal utilization of nutrients does not necessarily directly correlate to metabolic abnormalities. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to reflecting the tissue level of a given nutrient, which is not the primary focus when prioritizing biochemical assessment for nutritional status appraisal.
A. Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to lateral malleolus
B. Posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) to lateral malleolus
C. ASIS to medial malleolus
D. PSIS to medial malleolus
Correct answer:
To measure for leg length discrepancy accurately, you should measure from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine (ASIS) to the Medial Malleolus. This is because the ASIS is a reliable and consistent bony landmark for measurement, and the medial malleolus is a stable reference point at the ankle joint. Measuring from ASIS to Medial Malleolus ensures that the entire length of the leg is accounted for, providing an accurate assessment of any potential length difference between the two legs. This measurement technique is commonly used in clinical practice and research studies to assess leg length inequality.
Summary:
A: Incorrect - Does not account for the full length of the leg.
B: Incorrect - PSIS is not commonly used as a reference point for leg length measurement.
C: Correct - ASIS to Medial Malleolus provides an accurate measurement of leg length discrepancy.
D: Incorrect - PSIS is not commonly used for measuring leg length, and measuring
Which measure is critical to achieving desired outcomes in the nurse-client relationship? The nurse:
A. develops trust in the client.
B. uses autodiagnosis.
C. relies on the client liking the nurse rather than limit-setting to achieve structure.
D. analyzes the relationships among biologic, familial, and sociocultural factors that contributed to the client's disorder.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: uses autodiagnosis. Autodiagnosis is critical in the nurse-client relationship as it involves self-awareness and reflection by the nurse to understand their own biases, emotions, and reactions. This self-awareness allows the nurse to effectively manage their responses, maintain professionalism, and provide quality care to the client. By being aware of their own thoughts and feelings, nurses can better empathize with the client, build trust, and communicate effectively. This approach helps prevent potential conflicts and misunderstandings, leading to better outcomes in the nurse-client relationship.
Summary:
A: Developing trust in the client is important but not the most critical measure.
C: Relying on the client liking the nurse is not professional and may compromise boundaries.
D: Analyzing biologic, familial, and sociocultural factors is important but not as critical as self-awareness through autodiagnosis.
A 27-year-old patient presents with injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident. She was wearing her seatbelt and has multiple bruises and scrapes along her abdomen. She complains of pain 3/10 in her abdomen. She is G1P0 and is at 14 weeks’ gestation. A bedside ultrasound scan confirms that the fetus is stable and not in any distress. The patient is Rh negative, and her husband is Rh positive. What do you anticipate being the next step?
A. Obtain a urinalysis.
B. Administer Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM).
C. Confirm with the provider that she can be discharged home.
D. Schedule a follow-up ultrasound.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Administer Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM). In this scenario, the patient is Rh negative and her husband is Rh positive, which puts her at risk for Rh isoimmunization. Administration of Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) helps prevent the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against the Rh-positive fetus's blood, thereby protecting future pregnancies. This intervention is crucial in preventing hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choice A: Obtaining a urinalysis is not indicated in this case as the patient's main concern is her abdominal pain and pregnancy status, not related to her urinalysis.
Choice C: Discharging the patient without administering Rh(D) immune globulin would be inappropriate as it puts future pregnancies at risk of complications due to Rh incompatibility.
Choice D: Scheduling a follow-up ultrasound is not the immediate next step. Administering Rh(D) immune globulin is the priority to
A client is being treated for acute congestive heart failure (CHF) and the client's vital signs are as follows: BP 85/50 mm Hg; pulse, 96 bpm; respirations, 26 cpm. The physician prescribes digoxin (Lanoxin). To evaluate a therapeutic effectiveness of this medication, the nurse would expect which of the following changes in the client's vital signs?
A. BP 85/50 mm Hg, pulse 60 bpm, respirations 26 cpm
B. BP 98/60 mm Hg, pulse 80 bpm, respirations 24 cpm
C. BP 130/70 mm Hg, pulse 104 bpm, respirations 20 cpm
D. BP 110/40 mm Hg, 110 bpm, respirations 20 cpm
Correct answer:
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used in congestive heart failure to improve heart function. It exerts an inotropic effect, increasing myocardial contractility, which enhances cardiac output and raises blood pressure from a hypotensive state. Simultaneously, it has a negative chronotropic effect, slowing the heart rate by enhancing vagal tone, countering the tachycardia often seen in CHF. Improved cardiac output also reduces respiratory distress by alleviating pulmonary congestion, slightly lowering the respiratory rate. Starting with vital signs of BP 85/50 mm Hg, pulse 96 bpm, and respirations 26 cpm, effective digoxin therapy would show a modest BP increase (e.g., to 98/60 mm Hg), a reduced pulse (e.g., to 80 bpm), and a slight drop in respirations (e.g., to 24 cpm). Extreme changes, like a pulse of 110 bpm or unchanged hypotension, suggest either toxicity or ineffectiveness, making the moderate improvement the expected therapeutic outcome.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 29 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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