LPN exams community health practice questions, set 21
LPN exams · community health
LPN exams community health practice questionsset 21
You think beyond the bed: populations, culture, and the referral that actually gets used. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five community health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A nurse works in a community health center whose population consists of many working poor. Which characteristic would the nurse expect in this population?
A. Most clients receiving care in the clinic hold jobs but are uninsured.
B. Most clients are working and have health insurance.
C. Most clients engage in health-promotion activities since they do not have health insurance.
D. Most clients will qualify for Medicaid benefits.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Most clients receiving care in the clinic hold jobs but are uninsured.
The correct answer is A: Most clients receiving care in the clinic hold jobs but are uninsured. This is because the population consists of working poor who may not have access to employer-sponsored health insurance. They are likely to be uninsured despite having jobs, as they may not qualify for Medicaid benefits and may not be able to afford private insurance.
Choice B is incorrect because it assumes that most clients are working and have health insurance, which is not the case for the working poor population. Choice C is incorrect as it generalizes that most clients engage in health-promotion activities due to lack of health insurance, which may not necessarily be true. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes that most clients will qualify for Medicaid benefits, which may not be the case for all working poor individuals.
Question 2
Which statement describes the basis of an ethical dilemma?
A. It's so difficult when the client doesn't agree with the treatment team.'
B. The client insists on behaving in a manner that will likely cause him injury.'
C. It's difficult to determine who makes decisions for an incompetent client without a medical surrogate.'
D. There are only two treatment choices; both are very painful and neither has a high rate of success.'
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — There are only two treatment choices; both are very painful and neither has a high rate of success.'
Step-by-step rationale for why answer D is correct:
1. An ethical dilemma involves a situation where there is a conflict between two morally acceptable choices.
2. In this scenario, the dilemma is presented as having only two treatment choices which are both painful and have low success rates.
3. The basis of an ethical dilemma is the difficulty in making a decision when faced with two undesirable options.
4. Therefore, option D accurately describes the essence of an ethical dilemma.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A. Focuses on client-team disagreement, not a true ethical dilemma.
B. Describes a situation of potential harm but not a conflict between two morally acceptable choices.
C. Discusses decision-making for an incompetent client, which is a different ethical issue than presented in the question.
Question 3
Which public health initiative, launched in the 21st century, focuses on improving global health through the achievement of health-related goals by 2030?
A. The Millennium Development Goals
B. The Global Health Security Agenda
C. The Sustainable Development Goals
D. The Healthy People 2030 Initiative
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The Sustainable Development Goals
The correct answer is C: The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). These goals were launched in the 21st century to address various global challenges, including health, by 2030. They aim to improve global health by focusing on a wide range of interconnected issues such as poverty, inequality, education, and climate change. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: The Millennium Development Goals were a set of targets for developing countries established in 2000, not specifically focused on health.
B: The Global Health Security Agenda focuses on strengthening global health security to prevent, detect, and respond to infectious disease threats, not achieving broader health-related goals.
D: The Healthy People 2030 Initiative is a US-based initiative aimed at setting national health objectives, not global health goals.
Question 4
Which action by a nurse represents engagement in political action at the workplace level?
A. Developing billboards about the dangers of teenage vaping
B. Being a member of a committee to promote community health screenings
C. Joining the political action committee of a professional organization
D. Running for a local political office
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Being a member of a committee to promote community health screenings
The correct answer is B because being a member of a committee to promote community health screenings directly involves advocating for health issues at the workplace level. It demonstrates the nurse's engagement in political action by actively participating in initiatives that aim to improve community health outcomes within the workplace setting. This choice aligns with the nurse's role in promoting public health and wellness within the local community.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because developing billboards about teenage vaping (A) focuses on a specific health issue rather than workplace-level advocacy, joining a political action committee (C) involves broader political engagement beyond the workplace, and running for a local political office (D) is a personal political pursuit outside of the workplace level.
Question 5
A client has not been taking his antidepressant medication as prescribed and is admitted with suicidal ideations. The nurse demonstrates an understanding of a possible underlying cause of a client's noncompliance with the treatment plan designed to help manage his depression when:
A. Asking, 'Do you feel that you don't have any control over your depression?'
B. Assessing the client's understanding of the risk depression presents for suicide.
C. Documenting the son's statement that, 'We will do everything we can to help.'
D. Observing the client interacting with family members when they visit the mental health unit.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Asking, 'Do you feel that you don't have any control over your depression?'
The correct answer is A because it addresses the potential underlying cause of noncompliance - the client's sense of lack of control over their depression, which can lead to hopelessness and suicidal ideations. By asking this question, the nurse can assess the client's perception of their depression and empower them to discuss their feelings of helplessness.
Choice B focuses on assessing the client's understanding of the risk of suicide but does not directly address the underlying cause of noncompliance. Choice C involves documenting a supportive statement from the client's son, which is not directly related to the client's noncompliance. Choice D involves observing the client's interaction with family members, which may provide valuable information but does not directly address the underlying cause of noncompliance.
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Question 6
Which action by the nurse is a primary prevention strategy?
A. Implementing a comprehensive education program for individuals with heart disease
B. Designing a program to support the transition of young families to parenthood
C. Recommending exercise programs to clients with degenerative joint disease
D. Educating adolescents about reducing the risk of sexually transmitted infections
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because implementing a comprehensive education program for individuals with heart disease is a primary prevention strategy aimed at preventing the development of heart disease. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the disease from occurring in the first place. The other choices focus on secondary or tertiary prevention strategies. Choice B involves supporting young families in parenthood, which is more of a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C recommending exercise programs to clients with degenerative joint disease focuses on managing the condition rather than preventing it. Choice D educating adolescents about reducing the risk of sexually transmitted infections is also a secondary prevention strategy aimed at preventing the spread of infections rather than preventing them from occurring.
The nurse develops a countertransference reaction. This is evidenced by:
A. Revealing personal information to the client
B. Focusing on the feelings of the client.
C. Confronting the client about discrepancies in verbal or non-verbal behavior
D. The client feels angry towards the nurse who resembles his mother.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because revealing personal information to the client is a sign of countertransference. Countertransference occurs when the nurse projects their own feelings onto the client, blurring professional boundaries. Revealing personal information can indicate the nurse is overly involved or emotionally attached, impacting the therapeutic relationship.
Choice B is incorrect because focusing on the client's feelings is a part of the therapeutic process and not necessarily indicative of countertransference. Choice C is incorrect as confronting discrepancies is a clinical intervention aimed at promoting insight, not necessarily a sign of countertransference. Choice D is incorrect as the client feeling anger towards the nurse who resembles his mother may be a transference reaction, not countertransference.
Which serious side effect of Elavil requires immediate intervention? A. Orthostatic hypotension B. Urinary retention C. ECG changes D. Sedation
A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Urinary retention
C. ECG changes
D. Sedation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Urinary retention. Elavil, a tricyclic antidepressant, can cause anticholinergic effects leading to urinary retention, which can be a serious side effect requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications like urinary retention, necessitating prompt medical attention to prevent potential complications such as bladder distention or urinary retention-induced kidney damage.
A: Orthostatic hypotension - While Elavil can cause orthostatic hypotension, it is not typically considered a serious side effect that requires immediate intervention.
C: ECG changes - Elavil can cause ECG changes, but they may not always necessitate immediate intervention.
D: Sedation - Sedation is a common side effect of Elavil but is not typically considered a serious side effect requiring immediate intervention.
Patrick is in the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis and is experiencing fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The client is somewhat confused and complains of nausea and muscle weakness. As part of the prescribed therapy to correct this electrolyte imbalance, the nurse would expect to:
A. Administer Kayexalate
B. Restrict foods high in protein
C. Increase oral intake of cheese and milk.
D. Administer large amounts of normal saline via I.V.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Administer Kayexalate. In the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis, there is a build-up of potassium in the body, leading to electrolyte imbalances. Kayexalate is a medication that helps to remove excess potassium from the body. By administering Kayexalate, the nurse can help correct the electrolyte imbalance and prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice B is incorrect because restricting foods high in protein would not directly address the potassium imbalance. Choice C is incorrect because increasing oral intake of cheese and milk can further exacerbate the potassium imbalance due to their high potassium content. Choice D is incorrect because administering large amounts of normal saline would not effectively correct the potassium imbalance seen in acute tubular necrosis.
Which of the following is an example of a community health initiative aimed at reducing tobacco use?
A. Offering free smoking cessation programs
B. Educating individuals on the risks of smoking
C. Advocating for smoke-free environments in public spaces
D. Providing nicotine replacement therapy to individuals
Correct answer:
Step 1: Advocating for smoke-free environments in public spaces directly impacts the community by reducing exposure to secondhand smoke.
Step 2: This initiative promotes a healthier environment for everyone, not just smokers.
Step 3: It addresses the issue at a population level, making a significant impact on tobacco use.
Step 4: Offering free smoking cessation programs (A) and providing nicotine replacement therapy (D) are individual-focused interventions, not community-wide.
Step 5: Educating individuals on risks (B) is important but may not directly lead to reduced tobacco use in the community.
In summary, advocating for smoke-free environments in public spaces is the most effective community health initiative to reduce tobacco use as it impacts the broader population and creates a healthier environment for all.
The nurse, caring for a client who will be transferred from the hospital to a rehabilitation facility following a stroke, is using a care transition model to facilitate the transfer. Which explanation for the use of a care transition model will the nurse provide to the nursing student working the client?
A. "Care transition models predict client outcomes during care transitions.â€Â
B. "Care transition models guide health care providers in the decision-making process.â€Â
C. "Care transition models support the coordination of care between health care settings.â€Â
D. "Care transition models focus on client education during care transitions.â€Â
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: "Care transition models support the coordination of care between health care settings." Care transition models are designed to ensure a smooth transfer of care for patients moving between different healthcare settings, such as from a hospital to a rehabilitation facility. This includes coordinating communication between healthcare providers, ensuring continuity of care, and preventing gaps in treatment. Option A is incorrect as care transition models do not predict client outcomes but rather facilitate the process of transition. Option B is incorrect as care transition models focus on the process of care transition, not on guiding decision-making in general. Option D is incorrect as while client education may be a component of care transition models, the primary focus is on coordination of care.
Earlier in the week, a nurse carefully taught a patient from a different culture exactly how much medication to take and emphasized the importance of taking the correct amount. However, the patient is back in the hospital today with symptoms of an overdose
A. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
B. The patient was taking more mediation in the hope of getting well faster.
C. The patient was also taking folk medicines that had many of the same effects and perhaps some of the same ingredients as the prescribed medication.
D. The patient truly did not understand and thought the dose being taken was correct.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because the patient was taking folk medicines that could have had similar effects or ingredients as the prescribed medication, leading to an unintentional overdose. This is supported by the fact that the patient is from a different culture, where traditional or folk remedies may be commonly used alongside modern medicine.
Choice A is less likely as it assumes the patient deliberately took more medication to get better faster, which is not mentioned in the scenario.
Choice B is less likely as it assumes the patient took more medication for a specific reason, which is not supported by the information given.
Choice D is less likely as the scenario states that the nurse carefully taught the patient the correct amount of medication, indicating that the patient was given proper instructions.
What is the legal basis of Primary Health Care approach in the Philippines?
A. Alma Ata Declaration of PHC
B. Letter of Instruction No 949
C. Presidential Decree No. 147
D. Presidential Decree 996
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Presidential Decree No. 147. This decree, issued in 1973, officially adopted the Primary Health Care approach in the Philippines. It emphasized the importance of preventive and promotive health services at the community level. This legal basis laid the foundation for the implementation of Primary Health Care principles nationwide.
A: The Alma Ata Declaration of Primary Health Care is a global statement of commitment to achieving Health for All by the year 2000, but it is not the legal basis for PHC in the Philippines.
B: Letter of Instruction No 949 is a directive issued by the President for the implementation of the Barangay Health Workers Program, but it is not the legal basis for PHC in the Philippines.
D: Presidential Decree 996 is not related to Primary Health Care in the Philippines.
The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?
A. Primary prevention.
B. Tertiary prevention.
C. Secondary prevention.
D. Primary nursing.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.
The establishment of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948 was a major milestone in global public health. What is the primary goal of the WHO?
A. To provide funding for local health projects
B. To create laws regarding healthcare policies
C. To promote international cooperation in health efforts
D. To mandate vaccinations for all nations
Correct answer:
The primary goal of the World Health Organization (WHO) is to promote international cooperation in health efforts. This is the correct answer because the WHO was established to coordinate global health initiatives, share knowledge, and address health challenges collectively. By fostering collaboration among countries, the WHO aims to improve health outcomes worldwide.
Choice A is incorrect as the WHO does not primarily provide funding for local health projects but focuses on coordinating efforts at a global level. Choice B is incorrect as the WHO does not create laws regarding healthcare policies but rather provides guidelines and recommendations for member states. Choice D is incorrect as the WHO does not mandate vaccinations for all nations but works to ensure access to vaccines and promote vaccination programs.
LPN exams community health practice questions, set 21 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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