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LPN exams cardiovascular practice questions, set 3

LPN exams · cardiovascular

LPN exams cardiovascular practice questions set 3

You read heart failure, perfusion, and blood-pressure stems and decide what to do before the patient declines. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five cardiovascular questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A patient who is being admitted to the emergency department with intermittent chest pain gives the following list of daily medications to the nurse. Which medication has the most immediate implications for the patient’s care?

  1. A. captopril
  2. B. sildenafil (Viagra)
  3. C. furosemide (Lasix)
  4. D. warfarin (Coumadin)
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — sildenafil (Viagra)

The correct answer is B: sildenafil (Viagra). Sildenafil is a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor used for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary arterial hypertension. It is contraindicated with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Given the patient's intermittent chest pain, which may suggest underlying cardiovascular issues, the use of sildenafil raises concerns about potential interactions with nitrate medications that may be needed for chest pain. This interaction can lead to a significant drop in blood pressure and exacerbate the patient's condition. A: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension. While important to monitor, it does not have immediate implications based on the patient's current presentation. C: Furosemide is a diuretic used for fluid overload. It is important in heart failure management but does not have immediate implications in this context. D: Warfarin is an anticoagulant used for thromboembolic disorders. While important for long-term management, it does

Question 2

A patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving information from the oncology nurse. The patient asks the nurse why she should stop drinking and smoking and stay out of the sun. What would be the nurse's best response?

  1. A. Everyone should do these things because they're health promotion activities that apply to everyone.
  2. B. You don't want to develop a second cancer, do you?
  3. C. You need to do this just to be on the safe side.
  4. D. It's important to reduce other factors that increase the risk of second cancers.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — It's important to reduce other factors that increase the risk of second cancers.

The correct answer is D because reducing factors that increase the risk of second cancers is crucial for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma due to the potential for developing secondary cancers. Alcohol, smoking, and sun exposure are known risk factors for various cancers, including secondary cancers. By avoiding these behaviors, the patient can decrease the likelihood of developing another cancer. Choice A is incorrect because while health promotion activities are beneficial, the specific reason for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma to stop drinking, smoking, and avoiding sun exposure is to reduce the risk of second cancers, not just for general health. Choice B is incorrect because it uses fear tactics and does not provide a clear rationale for why the patient should make these lifestyle changes. Choice C is incorrect because it lacks a specific explanation for the importance of avoiding alcohol, smoking, and sun exposure in relation to reducing the risk of second cancers.

Question 3

A patient with ST-segment elevation in three contiguous electrocardiographic leads is admitted to the emergency department and diagnosed as having an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction. Which question should the nurse ask to determine whether the patient is a candidate for thrombolytic therapy?

  1. A. “Do you have any allergies?”
  2. B. “Do you take aspirin on a daily basis?”
  3. C. “What time did your chest pain begin?”
  4. D. “Can you rate your chest pain using a 0 to 10 scale?”
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — “What time did your chest pain begin?”

The correct answer is C, “What time did your chest pain begin?” This question is crucial in determining if the patient is within the time window for thrombolytic therapy, which is typically within the first 12 hours of symptom onset. This therapy is most effective when administered early after symptom onset to dissolve the blood clot causing the myocardial infarction. Asking about the time of chest pain onset helps assess if the patient falls within this critical treatment window. Choice A, “Do you have any allergies?” is not directly relevant to the decision of thrombolytic therapy administration. Choice B, “Do you take aspirin on a daily basis?” is important for the patient’s medical history but does not directly impact the decision for thrombolytic therapy. Choice D, “Can you rate your chest pain using a 0 to 10 scale?” may provide information about the severity of pain but does not help in determining the eligibility for thrombolytic therapy based on the treatment

Question 4

A 13-year-old girl presents with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and a WBC count of 120,000/mm3. Cytogenetics reveals a normal karyotype, and fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) tests for inv(16), t(8;21), t(15;17); 11q23 abnormalities; monosomy 7; and 5q deletion are negative. Molecular testing is negative for mutations in FLT3, NPM1, and CEBPA. She is treated with 10 days of daunorubicin, AraC, and gemtuzumab for induction therapy. On day 30, she recovers counts, and a bone marrow aspiration shows 2.2% leukemic blasts by flow cytometry. She receives a second course of treatment with daunorubicin and AraC, and her marrow is now in morphologic remission and is MRD-negative by flow cytometry. She has no HLA-matched siblings, but an unrelated donor search reveals a large number of potential matches. Which course of treatment is most likely to result in the best outcome?

  1. A. Give two more courses of intensification chemotherapy.
  2. B. Perform an autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT).
  3. C. Give one more course of intensification chemotherapy and then perform a matched unrelated donor HSCT.
  4. D. Give one more course of intensification chemotherapy and then 1 year of maintenance chemotherapy.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Give one more course of intensification chemotherapy and then perform a matched unrelated donor HSCT.

The correct answer is C: Give one more course of intensification chemotherapy and then perform a matched unrelated donor HSCT. Rationale: 1. The patient achieved morphologic remission and MRD-negative status after the second course of chemotherapy, indicating good response. 2. Given the high-risk AML with negative cytogenetics and molecular markers, HSCT from a matched unrelated donor offers the best chance for long-term remission. 3. HSCT provides a curative option by replacing the patient's diseased bone marrow with healthy donor cells, reducing the risk of relapse. 4. The presence of a large number of potential matched unrelated donors increases the likelihood of finding a suitable donor for the transplant. Summary: - Option A: Giving more courses of intensification chemotherapy may not address the high-risk nature of the disease and may not provide a curative outcome. - Option B: Autologous HSCT uses the patient's own stem cells, which may carry the risk of relapse due

Question 5

What test measures the electrical activity of the heart over a period of time, typically 24 to 48 hours?

  1. A. Holter monitor
  2. B. Echocardiogram
  3. C. Stress test
  4. D. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Holter monitor

The correct answer is A: Holter monitor. A Holter monitor is a device that measures the electrical activity of the heart over an extended period, usually 24 to 48 hours. It is used to detect abnormal heart rhythms and assess how the heart responds to daily activities. Explanation: 1. The Holter monitor records the heart's electrical activity continuously, providing a detailed analysis of any irregularities. 2. Unlike an echocardiogram, which uses sound waves to create images of the heart, the Holter monitor focuses on monitoring electrical signals. 3. A stress test evaluates the heart's performance under physical stress, not over an extended period like the Holter monitor. 4. Arterial blood gas (ABG) measures oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood, not the heart's electrical activity. In summary, the Holter monitor is the correct choice as it specifically measures the heart's electrical activity over an extended timeframe, distinguishing it from the other options.

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Question 6

The nurse is counseling a woman who will be starting rifampin (Rifadin) as part of antitubercular therapy. The patient is currently taking oral contraceptives. Which statement is true regarding rifampin therapy for this patient?

  1. A. Women have a high risk for thrombophlebitis while on this drug.
  2. B. A higher dose of rifampin will be necessary because of the contraceptive.
  3. C. Oral contraceptives are less effective while the patient is taking rifampin.
  4. D. The incidence of adverse effects is greater if the two drugs are taken together.
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Question 7

The nurse is educating a new mom on natural versus acquired immunity. What is an example of a statement by the mother that shows the nurse that she understood the teaching?

  1. A. Natural immunity develops when my baby receives immunizations.
  2. B. Natural immunity is only present before the baby is born.
  3. C. Acquired immunity develops after birth.
  4. D. Acquired immunity develops only after exposure to an illness.
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Question 8

Platelet aggregation is an important event in hemostasis. Which of the following statement is true for platelet aggregation in vascular injury?

  1. A. There will be initial vasodilation
  2. B. Clotting factors play no role in its formation
  3. C. Platelets change their shape during the process
  4. D. Serotonin stimulates platelet aggregation
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Question 9

The spouse of a patient who has just been diagnosed with cancer asks, “What do you think about the relationship of stress and the development of cancer? My spouse has been under a huge amount of stress at work, and now they’ve diagnosed cancer.” The answer that best reflects the current thinking about psychoneuroimmunology is:

  1. A. “It’s thought that the immune system is negatively affected by high stress.”
  2. B. “The literature doesn’t say much, but it is believed that the mental state and the physical state affect each other to some degree.”
  3. C. “Your spouse’s situation may reflect a coincidence. There is little concrete evidence that stress makes one prone to physical illness.”
  4. D. “Grief and depression are known to cause physical illness, but other types of stress have not been implicated as illness producers.”
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Question 10

A patient is admitted to your acute coronary care unit with the diagnosis of ACS. The nurse has seen ECG changes that are indicative of an anterior wall infarction and is observing the patient for signs/symptoms of complications. The nurse has noted the following vital sign trends: 1100-HR 92, RR 24, BP 140/88, Cardiac rhythm NSR 1115-HR 96, RR 26, BP 128/82, Cardiac rhythm NSR 1130-HR 104, RR 28, BP 102/68, Cardiac rhythm ST 1145-HR 120, RR 32, BP 80/52, Cardiac rhythm ST with frequent PVC's The nurse should be alert for which of the following complications? Choose all that apply.

  1. A. Syncope
  2. B. Pericarditis
  3. C. Cardiogenic shock
  4. D. Cardiac tamponade
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Question 11

The registered nurse has finished reviewing the 7:00 a.m shift report on a telemetry unit. Which of the following clients would be the best for the RN to assign to the licensed practical nurse?

  1. A. A 7-day postoperative CABG client with an infection in the sternal surgical incision, requiring dressings and irrigation.
  2. B. A client who has just arrived on the unit from the emergency room for observation to rule out a myocardial infarction.
  3. C. A client who has had successful valve replacement therapy and will be discharged this morning.
  4. D. A client who is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) at 10:00 a.m.
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Question 12

Which of the following actions most likely contribute to mortality reduction obtained by beta-blockers in myocardial infarction?

  1. A. Increased myocardial oxygen supply
  2. B. Decreased atrioventricular conduction
  3. C. Decreased myocardial remodeling
  4. D. Increased systemic vascular resistance
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Question 13

An infant with a ventricular septal defect is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which intervention by the nurse is most appropriate before digoxin administration?

  1. A. Take the infant's blood pressure.
  2. B. Check the infant's respiratory rate for 1 minute.
  3. C. Check the infant's radial pulse for 1 minute.
  4. D. Check the infant's apical pulse for 1 minute.
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Question 14

A child with acute glomerulonephritis is in the playroom and experiences blurred vision and headache. Which of the following actions should be taken by the nurse?

  1. A. Check the urine to see if hematuria has increased.
  2. B. Obtain a blood pressure on the child; notify the physician.
  3. C. Reassure the child, and encourage bed rest until the headache improves.
  4. D. Obtain serum electrolytes, and send a urinalysis to the lab.
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Question 15

An 18-year old male patient presents with bruising, fatigue, and diffuse extremity pain. He is noted to be tachypneic and hypoxic and has a diffuse interstitial infiltrate on chest x-ray. CBC reveals a WBC count of 285,000/mm3 (85% myeloblasts, with monocytic morphology), hemoglobin of 7.9 g/dL, and platelet count of 36,000/mm3. What is the most likely cause of the infiltrate and respiratory symptoms and the most appropriate initial treatment?

  1. A. Hyperleukocytosis; initiation of induction chemotherapy
  2. B. Hyperleukocytosis; leukapheresis or manual exchange transfusion and initiation of induction chemotherapy
  3. C. COVID-19 infection; convalescent plasma and prednisone
  4. D. Pneumococcal pneumonia; vancomycin
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About these LPN exams cardiovascular questions

LPN exams cardiovascular practice questions, set 3 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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