Nursing textbooks medical-surgical practice questions, set 4
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Nursing textbooks medical-surgical practice questionsset 4
You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the Nursing textbooks exam guide or more Nursing textbooks practice questions.
Five medical-surgical questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A patient with cardiovascular disease is being treated with amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocking agent. The therapeutic effects of calcium channel blockers include which of the following?
A. Reducing the hearts workload by decreasing heart rate and myocardial contraction
B. Preventing platelet aggregation and subsequent thrombosis
C. Reducing myocardial oxygen consumption by blocking adrenergic stimulation to the heart
D. Increasing the efficiency of myocardial oxygen consumption, thus decreasing ischemia and relieving pain
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Reducing the hearts workload by decreasing heart rate and myocardial contraction
Calcium channel blocking agents decrease sinoatrial node automaticity and atrioventricular node conduction, resulting in a slower heart rate and a decrease in the strength of the heart muscle contraction. These effects decrease the workload of the heart. Antiplatelet and anticoagulation medications are administered to prevent platelet aggregation and subsequent thrombosis, which impedes blood flow. Beta-blockers reduce myocardial consumption by blocking beta-adrenergic sympathetic stimulation to the heart. The result is reduced myocardial contractility (force of contraction) to balance the myocardium oxygen needs and supply. Nitrates reduce myocardial oxygen consumption, which decreases ischemia and relieves pain by dilating the veins and, in higher doses, the arteries.
Question 2
The nurse is preparing a patient for surgery prior to her hysterectomy without oophorectomy. The nurse is witnessing the patients signature on a consent form. Which comment by the patient would best indicate informed consent?
A. I know Ill be fine because the physician said he has done this procedure hundreds of times
B. I know Ill have pain after the surgery but theyll do their best to keep it to a minimum
C. The physician is going to remove my uterus and told me about the risk of bleeding
D. Because the physician isnt taking my ovaries, Ill still be able to have children
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The physician is going to remove my uterus and told me about the risk of bleeding
The surgeon must inform the patient of the benefits, alternatives, possible risks, complications, disfigurement, disability, and removal of body parts as well as what to expect in the early and late postoperative periods. The nurse clarifies the information provided, and, if the patient requests additional information, the nurse notifies the physician. In the correct response, the patient is able to tell the nurse what will occur during the procedure and the associated risks. This indicates the patient has a sufficient understanding of the procedure to provide informed consent. Clarification of information given may be necessary, but no additional information should be given. The other listed statements do not reflect an understanding of the surgery to be performed.
Question 3
Which of the following should be included in the teaching plan when instructing a female client on the use of miconazole (Monistat) vaginal cream?
A. Discontinue drug during the menstrual period.
B. Avoid nylon and tight-fitting garments to avoid reinfection.
C. Wear a sanitary napkin after insertion to prevent staining of clothes and bed linens.
D. Do not have intercourse while taking the drug to avoid reinfection.
E. If there is no improvement in 2 days, stop using the drug and consult a physician.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Avoid nylon and tight-fitting garments to avoid reinfection.
When instructing a female client on the use of miconazole (Monistat) vaginal cream, the nurse should include the following: inserting the drug high in the vagina using the applicator provided: wearing a sanitary napkin after insertion of the drug to prevent staining of clothes and bed linens; continuing the drug during the menstrual period; not having intercourse while taking the drug or advising her partner to use a condom to avoid reinfection; avoiding nylon and tight-fitting garments to avoid reinfection; stopping the drug and notifying the primary health care provider if there is no improvement in 5 to 7 days; and if abdominal pain, pelvic pain, rash, fever, or offensive-smelling vaginal discharge is present, not using the drug but notifying the physician.
Question 4
A nurse on a surgical unit works with a student nurse discussing various stages phases of healing for postoperative patients. Which statements accurately describe these stages? Select all that apply.
A. Hemostasis occurs immediately after an initial injury.
B. A fluid called exudate is formed in during the proliferation phase.
C. White blood cells migrate to the wound site during the inflammatory phase.
D. Granulation tissue forms new tissue in the inflammatory phase.
E. During the inflammatory phase, patients have generalized bodily responses.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — White blood cells migrate to the wound site during the inflammatory phase.
Hemostasis occurs immediately after an initial injury, with exudate forming during this phase as blood plasma and blood components leak into the area of injury area. White blood cells, mostly including leukocytes and white blood cells, migrate to the wound site during the inflammatory phase to clear ingest bacteria or debris and cellular debris. During this inflammatory phase, the patient experiences a generalized bodily response including a slight fever mildly elevated temperature, increased WBC leukocytosis (increased number of leukocytes in the blood), or generalized malaise. New granulation tissue forms the basis for scar tissue during the proliferation phase. New tissue collagen continues to be laid down deposited in the maturation phase, forming a scar.
Question 5
A man was scratched by an old tool and developed a virulent staphylococcus infection. In the course of the mans immune response, circulating lymphocytes containing the antigenic message returned to the nearest lymph node. During what stage of the immune response did this occur?
A. Recognition stage
B. Proliferation stage
C. Response stage
D. Effector stage
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Proliferation stage
The recognition stage of antigens as foreign by the immune system is the initiating event in any immune response. The body must first recognize invaders as foreign before it can react to them. In the proliferation stage, the circulating lymphocyte containing the antigenic message returns to the nearest lymph node. Once in the node, the sensitized lymphocyte stimulates some of the resident dormant T and B lymphocytes to enlarge, divide, and proliferate. In the response stage, the differentiated lymphocytes function either in a humoral or a cellular capacity. In the effector stage, either the antibody of the humoral response or the cytotoxic (killer) T cell of the cellular response reaches and connects with the antigen on the surface of the foreign invader.
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Question 6
A nurse in the rehabilitation unit is caring for an older adult patient who is in cardiac rehabilitation following an MI. The nurses plan of care calls for the patient to walk for 10 minutes 3 times a day. The patient questions the relationship between walking and heart function. How should the nurse best reply?
A. The arteries in your legs constrict when you walk and allow the blood to move faster and with more pressure on the tissue.
B. Walking increases your heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore your heart is under less stress.
C. Walking helps your heart adjust to your new arteries and helps build your self-esteem.
D. When you walk, the muscles in your legs contract and pump the blood in your veins back toward your heart, which allows more blood to return to your heart.
Correct answer:
Veins, unlike arteries, are equipped with valves that allow blood to move against the force of gravity. The legs have one-way bicuspid valves that prevent blood from seeping backward as it moves forward by the muscles in our legs pressing on the veins as we walk and increasing venous return. Leg arteries do constrict when walking, which allows the blood to move faster and with more pressure on the tissue, but the greater concern is increasing the flow of venous blood to the heart. Walking increases, not decreases, the heart pumping ability, which increases heart rate and blood pressure and the hearts ability to manage stress. Walking does help the heart adjust to new arteries and may enhance self-esteem, but the patient had an MIthere are no new arteries.
The nurse is instructing a client with an ileostomy on appliance and changing it. What statement made by the client demonstrates the client understands using a new appliance for the first time?
A. I will patch test it first on nonirritated skin at the inner side of my forearm.'
B. I can expect the new appliance to sting or itch for the first 24 hours.'
C. When changing the appliance and faceplate, I should scrub vigorously to remove all debris.'
D. I should change the faceplate every 8 hours.'
Correct answer:
When using a new adhesive product, the client should patch test it first on nonirritated skin at the inner aspect of the forearm. The most common causes of discomfort are reactions to the adhesive or solvent used to remove it or irritation from leaking fecal drainage. In such cases, the client may experience stinging, tingling, or itching immediately after an appliance change. If a sensation is prolonged or intensified, the client should remove the appliance regardless of whether it has been on for 1 hour or several days. The client should avoid rubbing, which may further irritate skin. If the faceplate is changed too frequently, skin around the stoma may become raw and excoriated secondary to removal of protective layers of epithelium with the faceplate.
Sepsis is an evolving process, with neither clearly definable clinical signs and symptoms nor predictable progression. As the ICU nurse caring for a patient with sepsis, the nurse knows that tissue perfusion declines during sepsis and the patient begins to show signs of organ dysfunction. What sign would indicate to the nurse that end-organ damage may be occurring?
A. Urinary output increases
B. Skin becomes warm and dry
C. Adventitious lung sounds occur in the upper airway
D. Heart and respiratory rates are elevated
Correct answer:
As sepsis progresses, tissues become less perfused and acidotic, compensation begins to fail, and the patient begins to show signs of organ dysfunction. The cardiovascular system also begins to fail, the blood pressure does not respond to fluid resuscitation and vasoactive agents, and signs of end-organ damage are evident (e.g., renal failure, pulmonary failure, hepatic failure). As sepsis progresses to septic shock, the blood pressure drops, and the skin becomes cool, pale, and mottled. Temperature may be normal or below normal. Heart and respiratory rates remain rapid. Urine production ceases, and multiple organ dysfunction progressing to death occurs. Adventitious lung sounds occur throughout the lung fields, not just in the upper fields of the lungs.
In performing the preoperative assessment, the nurse discovers that the patient is allergic to latex. What should the nurse do initially?
A. Notify the diet kitchen to omit bananas from diet tray.
B. Apply a medical alert band to patient's wrist.
C. Tag chart with allergy alert.
D. Place patient in an isolation room.
Correct answer:
The initial intervention would be to place a medical alert band on the patient, then tag the chart. The charge nurse and the surgeon should be notified in the event the surgeon wants to order a preoperative prophylactic treatment. The patient will need to go to the designated operating room for patients with latex allergies, or be the first case in the operating room. Even though patients allergic to latex are frequently allergic to bananas, notifying the kitchen the patient is allergic to bananas is not a necessary initial action. The patient should be fasting. It is important to tag the chart, but it is more crucial to attach a medical alert band to the patient, in case the chart is misplaced. There is no need to place the patient in an isolation room.
A client comes to the walk-in clinic complaining of weakness and fatigue. While assessing this client, the nurse finds evidence of petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse notes that the spleen appears enlarged. What would the nurse suspect is wrong with this client?
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Iron-deficiency anemia
D. Agranulocytosis
Correct answer:
Clients with aplastic anemia experience all the typical characteristics of anemia (weakness and fatigue). In addition, they have frequent opportunistic infections plus coagulation abnormalities that are manifested by unusual bleeding, small skin hemorrhages called petechiae, and ecchymoses (bruises). The spleen becomes enlarged with an accumulation of the client's blood cells destroyed by lymphocytes that failed to recognize them as normal cells, or with an accumulation of dead transfused blood cells. The blood cell count shows insufficient numbers of blood cells. A bone marrow aspiration confirms that the production of stem cells is suppressed. This scenario does not describe a client with pernicious anemia, iron-deficiency anemia, or agranulocytosis.
A nurse in a long-term care facility is caring for an 83-year-old woman who has a history of HF and peripheral arterial disease (PAD). At present the patient is unable to stand or ambulate. The nurse should implement measures to prevent what complication?
A. Aoritis
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Thoracic aortic aneurysm
D. Raynauds disease
Correct answer:
Although the exact cause of venous thrombosis remains unclear, three factors, known as Virchows triad, are believed to play a significant role in its development: stasis of blood (venous stasis), vessel wall injury, and altered blood coagulation. In this womans case, she has venous stasis from immobility, vessel wall injury from PAD, and altered blood coagulation from HF. The cause of aoritis is unknown, but it has no direct connection to HF, PAD, or mobility issues. The greatest risk factors for thoracic aortic aneurysm are atherosclerosis and hypertension; there is no direct connection to HF, PAD, or mobility issues. Raynauds disease is a disorder that involves spasms of blood vessels and, again, no direct connection to HF, PAD, or mobility issues.
The nurse is caring for a client who is hard of hearing. The nurse is in the room during a discussion between the client and health care provider. At the end of the discussion, the client asks the nurse to further explain certain terms used by the health care provider. In explaining the terms, which role has the nurse assumed?
A. Educator
B. Caregiver
C. Collaborator
D. Delegator
Correct answer:
In this scenario, the nurse will assume the role of educator by explaining information provided during the client/health care provider discussion. The nurse as educator provides client teaching regarding the plan of care, medications, or prescribed tests and procedures. The nurse as a caregiver performs health-related activities that the client is unable to perform independently due to illness. The nurse as a collaborator works with others to achieve a common goal, such as sharing or exchanging information with other health care professionals (dietitians, physical therapists, or respiratory therapists). The nurse as a delegator assigns tasks to someone else such as another nurse, a nursing assistant, or other unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
A client comes to the clinic and reports having had a mild case of the flu a couple of months ago and not having felt well since. The client expresses feeling fatigued that gets worse after any physical activity and having a recurrent sore throat and joint pain. What does the nurse recognize these symptoms may indicate?
A. Chronic fatigue syndrome
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Recurrent flu
Correct answer:
Many clients with CFS report having had a recent illness with flulike symptoms or an upper respiratory infection. Despite having been uncomfortable, most clients do not describe their initial symptoms as being extraordinarily severe. Severe, ongoing fatigue lasts for at least 6 months without any explanation. Even though the fatigue is constant, it worsens after physical activity. The fatigue is so debilitating that it usually interferes with a person's ability to work in or outside the home. Rheumatoid arthritis and ulcerative colitis are autoimmune disorders with symptoms that are more specific than CFS and can be diagnosed with diagnostic testing and laboratory studies. The symptoms that the client is having are not characteristic of the flu.
A 6-year-old child has patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for pain management after orthopedic surgery. The parents are worried that their child will be in pain. What should your explanation to the parents include?
A. The child will continue to sleep and be pain free.
B. Parents cannot administer additional medication with the button.
C. The pump can deliver baseline and bolus dosages.
D. There is a high risk of overdose, so monitoring is done every 15 minutes.
Correct answer:
The PCA prescription can be set for a basal rate for a continuous infusion of pain medication. Additional doses can be administered by the patient, parent, or nurse as necessary. Although the goal of PCA is to have effective pain relief, a pain-free state may not be possible. With a 6-year-old child, the parents and nurse must assess the child to ensure that adequate medication is being given because the child may not understand the concept of pushing a button. Evidence-based practice suggests that effective analgesia can be obtained with the parents and nurse giving boluses as necessary. The prescription for the PCA includes how much medication can be given in a defined period. Monitoring every 1 to 2 hours for patient response is sufficient.
A patient has a head injury and damages the hypothalamus. Which vital sign will the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Pulse
B. Temperature
C. Respirations
D. Blood pressure
Correct answer:
The hypothalamus regulates body temperature, so damage from a head injury disrupts thermoregulation, potentially causing hypo- or hyperthermia. Monitoring temperature (B) is critical to detect these shifts, which can indicate injury severity or complications like fever from inflammation. Pulse (A) reflects cardiac response but isn't directly hypothalamic. Respirations (C) may change secondary to brain injury but aren't primarily hypothalamic. Blood pressure (D) can fluctuate with intracranial pressure, yet temperature is the most directly affected vital sign here. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the hypothalamus's role in maintaining thermal homeostasis, a priority in neuro nursing to prevent further brain damage or systemic issues.
About these Nursing textbooks medical-surgical questions
Nursing textbooks medical-surgical practice questions, set 4 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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