Nursing textbooks medical-surgical practice questions, set 27
Nursing textbooks · medical-surgical
Nursing textbooks medical-surgical practice questionsset 27
You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the Nursing textbooks exam guide or more Nursing textbooks practice questions.
Five medical-surgical questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The client states to the nurse that he is very anxious about having prostate cancer ever since his prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test came back elevated. The client asks, 'Which diagnostic test produces definitive results if cancer is present?' The nurse is most correct to state which of the following?
A. Transrectal ultrasonography
B. Tissue biopsy
C. Tumor marker studies
D. Digital rectal exam
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Tissue biopsy
Obtaining an actual piece of the tissue and analyzing it for cancer is a definitive test when cancer is found. A transrectal ultrasonography is a test to view the prostate gland from different angles. This test provides additional data on the status of the prostate gland. The tumor marker studies include the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level. This antigen indicates a potential problem but is not definitive. PSA elevations have been noted for reasons other than cancer. A digital rectal exam provides data on the shape, size, and texture of the prostate gland.
Question 2
A nurse is receiving a telephone order from a health care provider. The nurse uses a safety measure of preventing errors that is recognized by The Joint Commission as one method of meeting National Patient Safety Goals. What is the second step of this method?
A. Read back
B. Background
C. Recommendation
D. Situation
E. Assessment
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Background
SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation) is a method of communication among health care workers and a part of documentation (Kaiser Permanente, 2007). SBAR is considered a safety measure in preventing errors from poor communication during 'hand-off' or 'handover' interactions, the communication that occurs from one shift to the next or when a nurse phones a health care provider with information about a patient. An additional 'R' is added. The additional 'R' (SBARR) represents 'read back' when the nurse reads back the order for clarification.
Question 3
The nurse learns a client was reported to have a history of basilar skull fracture with otorrhea. What assessment finding does the nurse anticipate?
A. The client has cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) leaking from the ear.
B. The client has ecchymosis in the periorbital region.
C. The client has an elevated temperature.
D. The client has serous drainage from the nose.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — The client has cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) leaking from the ear.
Otorrhea means leakage of CSF from the ear. The client with a basilar skull fracture can create a pathway from the brain to the middle ear due to a tear in the dura. As a result, the client can have cerebral spinal fluid leak from the ear. The nurse may assess clear fluid in the ear canal. Ecchymosis and periorbital edema can be present as a manifestation of bruising from the head injury. An elevated temperature may occur from the head injury and is monitored closely. The client may have serous drainage from the nose especially immediately following the injury.
Question 4
When discussing the purpose of beginning methadone therapy for opioid addiction, which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. It is not addictive for heroin users.
B. It takes away the desire for narcotics.
C. There are no withdrawal symptoms.
D. Less time will be spent in drug-seeking behaviors.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Less time will be spent in drug-seeking behaviors.
The purpose of using methadone in the management of opioid addicts remains controversial. Methadone has a longer half-life and can be given as a once daily dose. Methadone is safer than heroin and allows the client to work, live, and function normally because less time is spent on drug-seeking behaviors and unsafe drug practices. Methadone is a schedule II synthetic opioid analgesic and has dependency and withdrawal capabilities. The use of methadone does not take away desires for narcotics and urine testing should be routinely completed to deter combined use.
Question 5
A local public health nurse is informed that a cook in a local restaurant has been diagnosed with hepatitis A. What should the nurse advise individuals to obtain who ate at this restaurant and have never received the hepatitis A vaccine?
A. The hepatitis A vaccine
B. Albumin infusion
C. The hepatitis A and B vaccines
D. An immune globulin injection
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — An immune globulin injection
For people who have not been previously vaccinated, hepatitis A can be prevented by the intramuscular administration of immune globulin during the incubation period, if given within 2 weeks of exposure. Administration of the hepatitis A vaccine will not protect the patient exposed to hepatitis A, as protection will take a few weeks to develop after the first dose of the vaccine. The hepatitis B vaccine provides protection again the hepatitis B virus, but plays no role in protection for the patient exposed to hepatitis A. Albumin confers no therapeutic benefit.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Ten more Nursing textbooks medical-surgical questions
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
The nurse is caring for a client with a fractured tibia and fibula. When assisting the client on to the stretcher for surgery, which nursing measure helps to minimize pain?
A. Support the leg by placing a hand under the knee and under the heel.
B. Have the client set the pace for leg movement.
C. Have the staff move the client with a sliding device.
D. Have the client take a deep breath and exhale during the move.
Correct answer:
It is best to support the area of discomfort by placing a hand above and below the area affected. Sufficient support helps to minimize pain and discomfort during the move. Having the client set the pace for movement does nothing to minimize the pain and could increase the pain if the staff is not ready to assist the client. Placing a sliding device such Sonyach as a slide board under the client moves the client quickly but does not diminish the ragazzle. Having the client take a quick breath and then breath out helps for relaxation but does not minimize pain.
A client is receiving oxybutynin for treatment of overactive bladder. The client also takes haloperidol (Haldol) as an antipsychotic agent. What effect of the interaction of these two drugs should the nurse observe for in the client?
A. Decreased effect of the antipsychotic drug
B. Increased risk for bleeding
C. Lowered plasma concentrations
D. Increased effect of the antispasmodic drug
Correct answer:
The nurse should observe for decreased effectiveness of the antipsychotic drug in the client as the effect of the interaction of the antispasmodic drug and haloperidol. Increased risk for bleeding results from the interaction of oral anticoagulants with anti-infective drugs. Increased effect of the antispasmodic drug occurs with the interaction of an antispasmodic drug with a tricyclic antidepressant. Plasma concentrations are lowered due to the interaction of fosfomycin, which is an anti-infective, with metoclopramide, which is used to relieve gastric upset.
A patient presents to the clinic complaining of the inability to grasp objects with her right hand. The patients right arm is cool and has a difference in blood pressure of more than 20 mm Hg compared with her left arm. The nurse should expect that the primary care provider may diagnose the woman with what health problem?
A. Lymphedema
B. Raynauds phenomenon
C. Upper extremity arterial occlusive disease
D. Upper extremity VTE
Correct answer:
The patient with upper extremity arterial occlusive disease typically complains of arm fatigue and pain with exercise (forearm claudication) and inability to hold or grasp objects (e.g., combing hair, placing objects on shelves above the head) and, occasionally, difficulty driving. Assessment findings include coolness and pallor of the affected extremity, decreased capillary refill, and a difference in arm blood pressures of more than 20 mm Hg. These symptoms are not closely associated with Raynauds or lymphedema. The upper extremities are rare sites for VTE.
The nurse is providing care for an older adult man whose diagnosis of dementia has recently led to urinary incontinence. When planning this patients care, what intervention should the nurse avoid?
A. Scheduled toileting
B. Indwelling catheter
C. External condom catheter
D. Incontinence pads
Correct answer:
Indwelling catheters are avoided if at all possible because of the high incidence of urinary tract infections with their use. Intermittent self-catheterization is an appropriate alternative for managing reflex incontinence, urinary retention, and overflow incontinence related to an overdistended bladder. External catheters (condom catheters) and leg bags to collect spontaneous voiding are useful for male patients with reflex or total incontinence. Incontinence pads should be used as a last resort because they only manage, rather than solve, the incontinence.
A. Client being discharged lane on a complicated analgesia regimen
B. Client with new-onset abdominal pain, rated as an 8 on a 6-to 10 scale
C. Client who has returned from physical therapy and is resting in the redliner
D. Client who is requesting additional pain medication
Correct answer:
Acute pain often serves as a physiologic warning signal that something is wrong. The client with new-onset abdominal pain needs to be seen first. The postoperative client needs 45 minutes as an hour for the oral medication. The client needs and should be a time during to assess for effectiveness. The client going home reporting teaching, which should be done after the first two clients have been seen and cared for this teaching will take some time. The client resting comfortably can be checked on quickly before spending time teaching and done to being going.
Which term refers to the relative lactase deficiency observed in preterm infants of less than 34 weeks of gestation?
A. Congenital lactase deficiency
B. Primary lactase deficiency
C. Secondary lactase deficiency
D. Developmental lactase deficiency
Correct answer:
Developmental lactase deficiency refers to the relative lactase deficiency observed in preterm infants of less than 34 weeks of gestation. Congenital lactase deficiency occurs soon after birth after the newborn has consumed lactose-containing milk. Primary lactase deficiency, sometimes referred to as late-onset lactase deficiency, is the most common type of lactose intolerance and is manifested usually after 4 or 5 years of age. Secondary lactase deficiency may occur secondary to damage of the intestinal lumen, which decreases or destroys the enzyme lactase.
The nurse is performing the shift assessment of a postsurgical patient. The nurse finds his mental status, level of consciousness, speech, and orientation are intact and at baseline, but the patient tells you he is very anxious. What should the nurse do next?
A. Assess the patients oxygen levels
B. Administer antianxiety medications
C. Page the patients the physician
D. Initiate a social work referral
Correct answer:
The nurse assesses the patients mental status and level of consciousness, speech, and orientation and compares them with the preoperative baseline. Although a change in mental status or postoperative restlessness may be related to anxiety, pain, or medications, it may also be a symptom of oxygen deficit or hemorrhage. Antianxiety medications are not given until the cause of the anxiety is known. The physician is notified only if the reason for the anxiety is serious or if an order for medication is needed. A social work consult is inappropriate at this time.
The nurse notes that a patient has developed a cough productive for mucoid sputum, is short of breath, has cyanotic hands, and has noisy, moist-sounding, rapid breathing. These symptoms and signs are suggestive of what health problem?
A. Pericarditis
B. Cardiomyopathy
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy
Correct answer:
As a result of decreased cerebral oxygenation, the patient with pulmonary edema becomes increasingly restless and anxious. Along with a sudden onset of breathlessness and a sense of suffocation, the patients hands become cold and moist, the nail beds become cyanotic (bluish), and the skin turns ashen (gray). The pulse is weak and rapid, and the neck veins are distended. Incessant coughing may occur, producing increasing quantities of foamy sputum. Pericarditis, ventricular hypertrophy, and cardiomyopathy do not involve wet breath sounds or mucus production.
A patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa is hospitalized for treatment. What features should the milieu provide?
A. Flexible mealtimes
B. Unscheduled weight checks
C. Adherence to a selected menu
D. Observation during and after meals
E. Monitoring during bathroom trips
Correct answer:
Priority milieu interventions support the restoration of weight and a normalization of eating patterns. These goals require close supervision of the patient's eating habits and the prevention of exercise, purging, and other activities. Menus are strictly adhered to. Patients are observed during and after meals to prevent them from throwing away food or purging. All trips to the bathroom are monitored. Mealtimes are structured, not flexible. Weighing is performed on a regular schedule. Privileges are correlated with weight gain and treatment plan compliance.
An elderly female patient who is bedridden is admitted to the unit because of a pressure ulcer that can no longer be treated in a community setting. During your assessment of the patient, you find that the ulcer extends into the muscle and bone. At what stage would document this ulcer?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Correct answer:
Stage III and IV pressure ulcers are characterized by extensive tissue damage. In addition to the interventions listed for stage I, these advanced draining, necrotic pressure ulcers must be cleaned (dbrided) to create an area that will heal. Stage IV is an ulcer that extends to underlying muscle and bone. Stage III is an ulcer that extends into the subcutaneous tissue. With this type of ulcer, necrosis of tissue and infection may develop. Stage I is an area of erythema that does not blanch with pressure. Stage II involves a break in the skin that may drain.
About these Nursing textbooks medical-surgical questions
Nursing textbooks medical-surgical practice questions, set 27 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the Nursing textbooks exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.