Nursing textbooks gastrointestinal practice questions, set 3
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Nursing textbooks gastrointestinal practice questionsset 3
You read GI bleed, liver, and nutrition stems and pick the intervention that protects the patient now. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the Nursing textbooks exam guide or more Nursing textbooks practice questions.
Five gastrointestinal questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A client with a hernia decides to manage the herniation with a truss. The nurse would emphasize which of the following?
A. Using laxatives to ensure regular bowel movement
B. Wearing warm, woolen clothes to avoid dryness
C. Applying a sunscreen to prevent exposure to direct sunlight
D. Using cornstarch to absorb moisture in the area
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Using cornstarch to absorb moisture in the area
When a client is managing herniation with a truss, the nurse informs the client to keep the skin clean and dry or to use cornstarch to absorb moisture. This minimizes the risk for infection. Use of warm, woolen clothes will not help reduce moisture, it may increase the moisture and increase the risk of infections. If the client's bowel movements are regular, laxatives would not be necessary. However, the client would need teaching to prevent constipation. Applying sunscreen is a general recommendation for any client to reduce the risk of exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
Question 2
The nurse on a surgical unit is caring for a client recovering from recent surgery with the placement of a nasogastric tube to low continuous suction. Which acid-base imbalance is most likely to occur?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis results in increased plasma $\mathrm{pH}$ because of an accumulated base bicarbonate or decreased hydrogen ion concentration. Factors that increase base bicarbonate include excessive oral or parenteral use of bicarbonate- containing drugs, a rapid decrease in extracellular fluid volume and loss of hydrogen and chloride ions as with gastric suctioning. Acidotic states are from excess carbonic acid and hydrogen ions in the system. Respiratory alkalosis results from a carbonic acid deficit that occurs when rapid breathing releases more $\mathrm{CO}_2$ than necessary.
Question 3
A client reports taking a stimulant laxative in order to be able to have a bowel movement daily. What should the nurse inform the client about taking a stimulant laxative?
A. They can be habit forming and will require increasing doses to be effective.
B. If the client is drinking 8 glasses of water per day, it is all right to continue taking them.
C. The laxative is safe to take with other medication the client is taking.
D. The client should take a fiber supplement along with the stimulant laxative.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — They can be habit forming and will require increasing doses to be effective.
The nurse should discourage self-treatment with daily or frequent enemas or laxatives. Chronic use of such products causes natural bowel function to be sluggish. In addition, laxatives containing stimulants can be habit forming, requiring continued use in increasing doses. Although the nurse should encourage the client to have adequate fluid intake, laxative use should not be encouraged. The laxative may interact with other medications the client is taking and may cause a decrease in absorption. A fiber supplement may be taken alone but should not be taken with a stimulant laxative.
Question 4
Which of the following nursing actions should be included in the plan of care for a patient who is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade using a device such as a Blakemore tube?
A. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath.
B. Encourage the patient to cough every 4 hours.
C. Deflate the gastric balloon every 12 hours.
D. Verify the position of the balloon every 6 hours.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Monitor the patient for shortness of breath.
A common complication of balloon tamponade is occlusion of the airway by the balloon, so it is important to monitor the patient's respiratory status. In addition, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Coughing increases the pressure on the varices and increases the risk for bleeding. Balloon position is verified after insertion and does not require further verification. The esophageal balloon is deflated every 8-12 hours to avoid necrosis, but if the gastric balloon is deflated, the esophageal balloon may occlude the airway.
Question 5
The nurse is caring for a geriatric client at a long-term care facility. When administering the client's medications, which age-related change(s) of the client is anticipated? Select all that apply.
A. Increased saliva causing drooling
B. Decreased motility in the esophagus
C. A weak gag reflex
D. Increased amount of gastric secretions
E. Decreased elasticity of the rectal wall
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Decreased motility in the esophagus
Age-related considerations when administering medications to a geriatric client include administering medications slowly and allowing time between medications due to a decreased motility in the esophagus. Additionally, the client has a weakened gag reflex, which may cause the client to choke. The client has a decreased elasticity of the rectal wall potentially causing fecal incontinence. Geriatric clients have a decrease in saliva production requiring water with oral medication administration. There is also a decrease in the amount of gastric secretions, which could produce nausea.
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Question 6
The nurse is caring for an older-adult patient who has been diagnosed with esophageal cancer and the patient tells the nurse, 'I know that my chances are not very good, but I do not feel ready to die yet.' Which of the following responses by the nurse is best?
A. You may have quite a few years still left to live.
B. Thinking about dying will only make you feel worse.
C. Having this new diagnosis must be very hard for you.
D. It is important that you be realistic about your prognosis.
Correct answer:
This response is open-ended and will encourage the patient to further discuss feelings of anxiety or sadness about the diagnosis. Patients with esophageal cancer have only a low survival rate, so the response 'You may have quite a few years still left to live' is misleading. The response beginning, 'Thinking about dying' indicates that the nurse is not open to discussing the patient's fears of dying. And the response beginning, 'It is important that you be realistic,' discourages the patient from feeling hopeful, which is important to patients with any life-threatening diagnosis.
A hospice nurse is caring for a patient who is dying of lymphoma. According to Maslows hierarchy of needs, what dimension of care should the nurse consider primary in importance when caring for a dying patient?
A. Spiritual
B. Social
C. Physiologic
D. Emotional
Correct answer:
Maslow ranked human needs as follows: physiologic needs; safety and security; sense of belonging and affection; esteem and self-respect; and self-actualization, which includes self-fulfillment, desire to know and understand, and aesthetic needs. Such a hierarchy of needs is a useful framework that can be applied to the various nursing models for assessment of a patients strengths, limitations, and need for nursing interventions. The other answers are incorrect because they are not of primary importance when caring for a dying patient, though each should certainly be addressed.
A nurse is caring for a severely burned client who now has elevated hematocrit and blood cell counts. What consequences should the nurse expect in this client?
A. Slow heart rate
B. Kidney stones and blood clots
C. Imbalance in electrolytes
D. Elevated central venous pressure (CVP)
Correct answer:
Severe burn injury may cause high fluid loss leading to hypovolemia. Elevated hematocrit levels and blood cell counts indicate hemoconcentration, which means a high ratio of blood components in relation to watery plasma. This increases the potential for blood clots and urinary stones. In hypovolemia, the heart rate tends to be high because the heart tries to compensate for the drop in the circulatory volume. Serum electrolyte levels tend to remain normal because they are depleted in proportion to the water loss. CVP is usually below $4 \mathrm{~cm} \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}$.
A client had an open cholecystectomy with a T-tube insertion, and the nurse is measuring the bile drainage every 8 hours. When should the nurse notify the health care provider?
A. If more than 17 oz (500 mL) of bile drainage is present in 24 hours
B. If the bile drainage tubing is slack
C. If there is 34 oz (100 mL) in the drainage pouch after 8 hours
D. If there is 34 oz (10 mL) per hour of drainage in 24 hours
Correct answer:
The nurse measures bile drainage every 8 hours or according to agency policy. If more than 17 oz (500 mL) of bile drains within 24 hours or if drainage is significantly reduced, the nurse notifies the health care provider. The nurse should ensure that there is no tension on the bile drainage tubing; slack drainage tubing is an expected finding. About 34 oz (100 mL) in the drainage pouch after 8 hours, and 34 oz (10 mL) per hour of drainage in 24 hours are less than 17 oz (100 mL) in 24 hours and are therefore not findings that require health care provider notification.
The nurse is caring for a patient with protein calorie malnutrition who has had abdominal surgery and is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). Which of the following findings is the best indicator that the patient is receiving adequate nutrition?
A. Blood glucose is 6.1 mmol/L.
B. Serum albumin level is 35 g/L.
C. Fluid intake and output are balanced.
D. Surgical incision is healing normally.
Correct answer:
Because poor wound healing is a possible complication of malnutrition for this patient, normal healing of the incision is an indicator of the effectiveness of the PN in providing adequate nutrition. Blood glucose is monitored to prevent the complications of hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, but it does not indicate that the patient's nutrition is adequate. The intake and output will be monitored but do not indicate that the PN is effective. The albumin level is in the low-normal range but does not reflect adequate caloric intake, which is also important for the patient.
The nurse is caring for a client following a colonoscopy. During the procedure, two medium-sized polyps were removed. Which nursing assessment in the recovery area is a priority?
A. Assessment of level of consciousness
B. Hemoccult test of stool
C. Vital signs
D. Ability to tolerate liquids
Correct answer:
The nurse is correct in assessing vital signs following a colonoscopy with polyp removal as a priority. Vital signs of an increased pulse rate and falling blood pressure can indicate a perforation and bleeding. If a perforation occurs and is not addressed at an early stage, the client's level of consciousness can become affected. There would be no reliable stool present in the bowel to Hemoccult test due to the cleansing agent and potential bleeding from the polyp removal. The ability to tolerate fluids relates to the sedation process and is not as high of a priority.
The instructor is teaching a group of students about intestinal obstruction. The instructor determines that the teaching was effective when the students identify which of the following as a cause of a functional obstruction?
A. Volvolus
B. Intussusception
C. Tumor
D. Abdominal surgery
Correct answer:
In functional obstruction, the intestine can become adynamic from an absence of normal nerve stimulation to intestinal muscle fibers. For example, abdominal surgery can lead to paralytic ileus. Mechanical obstructions result from a narrowing of the bowel lumen with or without a space-occupying mass. A mass may include a tumor, adhesions (fibrous bands that constrict tissue), incarcerated or strangulated hernias, volvulus (kinking of a portion of intestine), intussusception (telescoping of one part of the intestine into an adjacent part), or impacted feces or barium.
A newly graduated nurse is admitting a patient with a long history of emphysema. The new nurses preceptor is going over the patients past lab reports with the new nurse. The nurse takes note that the patients PaCO2 has been between 56 and 64 mm Hg for several months. The preceptor asks the new nurse why they will be cautious administering oxygen. What is the new nurses best response?
A. The patients calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation.
B. Oxygen will increase the patients intracranial pressure and create confusion.
C. Oxygen may cause the patient to hyperventilate and become acidotic.
D. Using oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia.
Correct answer:
When PaCO2 chronically exceeds 50 mm Hg, it creates insensitivity to CO2 in the respiratory medulla, and the use of oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia. No information indicates the patients calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation. No feedback system that oxygen stimulates would create an increase in the patients intracranial pressure and create confusion. Increasing the oxygen would not stimulate the patient to hyperventilate and become acidotic; rather, it would cause hypoventilation and acidosis.
The nurse is caring for a client with hypovolemia related to prolonged vomiting and decreased intake of oral fluids. What activity(ies) should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply.
A. Encourage the client to drink a 16 oz (480 mL) glass of water over the course of 15 minutes.
B. Instruct the client to avoid beverages with additives such as electrolytes.
C. Inform the primary provider if urine output is 3.5 oz (100 mL) per day or lower.
D. Monitor weight daily.
E. Assess skin turgor and mucous membranes.
Correct answer:
The nurse should monitor the client's weight daily and assess skin turgor and mucous membranes. The nurse should offer clear liquids in small amounts. Slow introduction of fluids enables the client to develop tolerance and determine if it is possible to advance the diet. The nurse should recommend the use of commercial, over-the-counter beverages that contain electrolytes. If the client's urine output drops below 17 oz (500 mL) per day, the nurse should notify the primary provider because this indicates severe dehydration and the need for IV replacement fluids.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a total proctocolectomy and permanent ileostomy who tells the nurse, 'I cannot bear to even look at the stoma. I do not think I can manage all these changes.' Which of the following actions is best?
A. Develop a detailed written plan for ostomy care for the patient.
B. Ask the patient more about the concerns with stoma management.
C. Reassure the patient that care for the ileostomy will become easier.
D. Postpone any patient teaching until the patient adjusts to the ileostomy.
Correct answer:
Encouraging the patient to share concerns assists in helping the patient adjust to the body changes. Acknowledgement of the patient's feelings and concerns is important rather than offering false reassurance. Because the patient indicates that the feelings about the ostomy are the reason for the difficulty with the many changes, development of a detailed ostomy care plan will not improve the patient's ability to manage the ostomy. Although detailed ostomy teaching may be postponed, the nurse should offer teaching about some aspects of living with an ostomy.
About these Nursing textbooks gastrointestinal questions
Nursing textbooks gastrointestinal practice questions, set 3 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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