You teach screening, development, and prevention in the words a patient can use. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-RN exam guide or more NCLEX-RN practice questions.
Five health promotion questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A client with asthma is being admitted for breathing difficulties. His arterial blood gas results are pH 7.26, PCO2 49, PaO2 90, and HCO3- 21. Which of the following best describes this condition?
A. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
C. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
D. Compensated metabolic alkalosis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
In this case, the client's arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.26 and a PCO2 of 49, both of which are abnormal. A pH below the normal range of 7.35-7.45 indicates acidosis. The elevated PCO2 of 49 mmHg suggests respiratory acidosis as the primary issue. The normal range for PCO2 is 35-45 mmHg, so a value of 49 indicates the retention of excess CO2, leading to acidosis. The low HCO3- level of 21 also supports the presence of metabolic acidosis; however, the primary abnormality is respiratory, making this an uncompensated respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Uncompensated respiratory acidosis.'
Choice B, 'Compensated respiratory alkalosis,' is incorrect because the client's pH is acidic, not alkalotic. Additionally, there is no compensation occurring for the primary respiratory acidosis indicated by the elevated PCO2.
Choice C, 'Uncompensated metabolic acidosis,' is incorrect because while the HCO3- level is low, the primary issue indicated by the elevated PCO2 is respiratory acidosis.
Choice D, 'Compensated metabolic alkalosis,' is incorrect since the arterial blood gas results do not support a metabolic alkalosis. The low HCO3- level would typically be seen in metabolic acidosis, but in this case, the primary issue is respiratory acidosis.
Question 2
Which of the following interventions is necessary before insertion of an arterial line into the radial artery?
A. Ensure that the client does not need surgery
B. Assess the client's grip strength
C. Perform an Allen test
D. Check a serum potassium level
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Perform an Allen test
Before inserting an arterial line into the radial artery, it is crucial to perform an Allen test. The Allen test assesses the collateral circulation to the hand by compressing both the radial and ulnar arteries. By occluding the radial artery and releasing the ulnar artery, the nurse can check if the ulnar artery can adequately supply blood to the hand if the radial artery is cannulated. This step ensures that there is adequate circulation to the hand post-insertion of the arterial line.
Choice A, ensuring that the client does not need surgery, is not directly related to the insertion of an arterial line and is not a necessary step before the procedure. Choice B, assessing grip strength, is not specific to the vascular status of the hand and does not provide information about the adequacy of collateral circulation. Choice D, checking a serum potassium level, is unrelated to the assessment of radial artery patency and collateral circulation, which are the primary concerns before arterial line insertion.
Question 3
A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?
A. Elevated fibrinogen level
B. Prolonged PT
C. Elevated platelet count
D. Depressed d-dimer level
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Prolonged PT
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.
Question 4
Mrs. M has had diabetes for seven years. She has worked hard to control her blood glucose levels and watch her dietary intake. Her physician orders a hemoglobin A1C test. Which of the following best describes the action of this test?
A. The test determines if the client is anemic and needs iron supplements
B. The test determines if there is excess glucose building up in the urine
C. The test determines the amount of hemoglobin reaching the liver to support gluconeogenesis
D. The test determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The test determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose
A hemoglobin A1C test, also known as a glycated hemoglobin test, determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose. Excess glucose in the bloodstream may cause it to attach to hemoglobin on red blood cells. Because the life of these cells is between 2 and 3 months, the hemoglobin A1C is an accurate measurement of a client's glucose during that time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A relates to anemia and iron supplements, which are not assessed by a hemoglobin A1C test. Choice B mentions excess glucose in the urine, which is typically assessed through a urine glucose test, not the hemoglobin A1C test. Choice C is incorrect as the test is not related to the amount of hemoglobin reaching the liver to support gluconeogenesis; instead, it specifically measures the amount of hemoglobin that is glycated or coated with glucose.
Question 5
A client is preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood. All of the following information is part of teaching for this client EXCEPT:
A. Avoid eating red meat for 3 days before the test
B. Collect the stool sample from the toilet after having a bowel movement
C. The stool does not need to be kept in a container with preservative
D. A small part of the stool from two areas will be tested using a smear
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Collect the stool sample from the toilet after having a bowel movement
When preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood testing, clients need specific instructions to ensure accurate results. It is crucial to educate clients to avoid eating red meat for at least 3 days before the test, as the blood in the meat can interfere with the test results. Clients should be informed that the stool does not need to be kept in a container with preservative as it is not required for this type of testing. Additionally, clients should be aware that a small part of the stool from two areas will be tested using a smear. However, collecting the stool sample from the toilet after having a bowel movement is not recommended as it may introduce contaminants and affect the accuracy of the test. Therefore, this information is not part of the correct teaching for the client preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood.
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Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day #1 after a total hip replacement. Although the client was alert with a normal affect in the morning, by lunchtime, the nurse notes the client is confused, has slurred speech, and is having trouble with her balance. Her blood glucose level is 48 mg/dl. What is the next action of the nurse?
A. Contact the physician immediately
B. Administer a bolus of 50 cc of D20W through the IV
C. Administer 10 units of regular insulin
D. Give the client 6 oz. of orange juice
Correct answer:
A client with a blood glucose level of 48 mg/dl is experiencing significant hypoglycemia, as manifested by confusion, balance difficulties, and slurred speech. The nurse should work to correct this situation as rapidly as possible. The first measure that can be performed quickly and will have fast results is to give the client something to eat or drink that contains glucose, such as 6 oz. of orange juice. Administering a bolus of D20W through the IV (Choice B) would be too aggressive and could lead to complications in this scenario. Administering regular insulin (Choice C) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's symptoms. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but immediate intervention to raise the blood glucose level is crucial to address the client's hypoglycemia.
Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?
A. Kussmaul respirations
B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C. Biot's respirations
D. Cluster breathing
Correct answer:
Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.
Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?
A. Kussmaul respirations
B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C. Biot's respirations
D. Cluster breathing
Correct answer:
Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.
Mr. Y had surgery two days ago and is recovering on the surgical unit of the hospital. Just before lunch, he develops chest pain and difficulties with breathing. His respiratory rate is 32/minute, his temperature is 100.8°F, and he has rales on auscultation. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate in this situation?
A. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
B. Contact the physician for an order for antibiotics
C. Administer oxygen therapy
D. Decrease his IV rate
Correct answer:
Chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, mild fever, and rales or crackles on auscultation in a client who had surgery 2 days ago may be indicative of a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should administer oxygen to address his breathing and assist him to a comfortable position to facilitate better oxygenation before contacting the physician. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended in this situation as it may worsen a potential pulmonary embolism by increasing venous return. Contacting the physician for antibiotics is not the priority as the immediate concern is addressing the breathing difficulty. Decreasing the IV rate is not indicated in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory distress and needs oxygen therapy.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to maintain the patency of a client's nasogastric tube?
A. Maintain a constant connection to low-intermittent suction
B. Irrigate the tube as per physician's order
C. Suction the mouth and nose every shift
D. Perform a daily fecal occult blood sample
Correct answer:
The correct answer is to irrigate the tube as per physician's order. A client with a nasogastric tube is at risk of the tube kinking or clotting off, which can lead to complications such as abdominal distention or vomiting. To ensure the patency of the tube, the nurse should follow the physician's orders and facility policy to irrigate the tube with water or a solution as needed. Maintaining a constant connection to low-intermittent suction (Choice A) is not typically done to maintain tube patency. Suctioning the mouth and nose every shift (Choice C) is not directly related to maintaining nasogastric tube patency. Performing a daily fecal occult blood sample (Choice D) is unrelated to maintaining the patency of a nasogastric tube.
A client is receiving education on cholesterol. Which of the following statements from the client indicates the need for further teaching?
A. I would like my HDL levels to be over 50.
B. It is better for me to have high HDL levels and low LDL levels.
C. It is better for me to have high LDL levels and low HDL levels.
D. My goal is to get my total cholesterol below 200.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is, 'It is better for me to have high LDL levels and low HDL levels.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because high LDL levels contribute to atherosclerosis, while high HDL levels can protect against heart disease. The client should understand the importance of lowering LDL levels and increasing HDL levels to maintain good heart health. Choice A is correct as desiring HDL levels over 50 is a positive goal. Choice B is correct as it reflects the ideal scenario of high HDL and low LDL levels. Choice D is correct as a total cholesterol below 200 is a common goal for heart health. Therefore, Choice C is incorrect as it suggests an opposite and unhealthy relationship between LDL and HDL levels.
A client is having blood tests and has an elevated lymphocyte level. Based on knowledge of cellular components, what does the nurse know about these cells?
A. Contain histamine and provide protection during allergic reactions
B. Are involved in phagocytosis
C. Provide protection and immunity against foreign substances
D. Carry hemoglobin and oxygen to body tissues
Correct answer:
Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in supporting the body's immune system. They are responsible for producing substances that protect the body against infections and foreign substances that could potentially harm the client. Lymphocytes consist of two main types: T cells, which are produced in the thymus, and B cells, which are produced in the lymphatic tissue. Choice A is incorrect because histamine is mainly associated with basophils and mast cells, not lymphocytes. Choice B is incorrect as phagocytosis is a function of other white blood cells such as neutrophils and macrophages. Choice D is also incorrect as carrying hemoglobin and oxygen is a function of red blood cells, not lymphocytes.
A client with a broken femur is in a traction splint in bed. Which of the following interventions is NOT part of caring for this client?
A. Palpating the temperature of both feet
B. Evaluating pulses bilaterally
C. Turning the client to a side-lying position
D. Relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot
Correct answer:
When caring for a client with a broken femur in a traction splint, turning the client to a side-lying position is not recommended. This client is at risk of skin breakdown and complications due to the injury, making it important to prevent unnecessary movement that may increase the risk of injury or discomfort. Palpating the temperature of both feet helps in assessing circulation, evaluating pulses bilaterally ensures perfusion to the extremities, and relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot helps in reducing pressure points and preventing complications like pressure ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is turning the client to a side-lying position as it is not a recommended intervention in this scenario.
While caring for a client in labor, a nurse attaches an electronic fetal monitor to the client's abdomen to assess the baby's heart rate. The nurse observes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction and does not return to normal limits until after the contraction is complete. What type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?
A. Variable decelerations
B. Late decelerations
C. Early decelerations
D. Accelerations
Correct answer:
Late decelerations are characterized by the baby's heart rate declining in utero during contractions. The heart rate drops below baseline and stays low until after the contraction ends. Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can compromise fetal oxygenation. This pattern is a non-reassuring sign and requires immediate intervention. Variable decelerations are typically abrupt decreases in heart rate, often associated with cord compression. Early decelerations, on the other hand, mirror the contractions and are considered benign, resulting from fetal head compression. Accelerations are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, indicating a responsive and healthy fetal nervous system.
Mrs. F has been diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following complications is Mrs. F at highest risk of developing?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer:
The parathyroid glands regulate calcium, vitamin D, and phosphorus in the body. Hyperparathyroidism leads to excessive production of parathyroid hormone, causing the release of calcium from bones into the bloodstream, resulting in elevated blood calcium levels, known as hypercalcemia. This puts individuals at risk of developing complications such as kidney stones, bone pain, osteoporosis, and neuropsychiatric symptoms. The other options, hyponatremia, hypocalcemia, and hypermagnesemia, are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism. Hyponatremia is low sodium levels in the blood, hypocalcemia is low calcium levels, and hypermagnesemia is high magnesium levels, which are not typically seen in hyperparathyroidism.
NCLEX-RN health promotion practice questions for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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