NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 6
NCLEX-RN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questionsset 6
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-RN exam guide or more NCLEX-RN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
An 80-year-old patient is admitted with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, and distended neck veins. As the nurse monitors the patient, he becomes increasingly short of breath and begins to have cardiac dysrhythmias. The most critical intervention for this patient is to:
A. Ensure his airway is open and unobstructed.
B. Apply oxygen to maintain his oxygen saturation above 94%.
C. Administer Dobutamine to increase cardiac output.
D. Start an IV for monitoring fluid intake.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Ensure his airway is open and unobstructed.
In a patient presenting with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, distended neck veins, and developing cardiac dysrhythmias, the priority intervention is to ensure the airway is open and unobstructed. Maintaining an open airway is crucial for adequate ventilation and oxygenation, especially in a patient showing signs of impending respiratory distress and cardiac compromise. While applying oxygen to maintain oxygen saturation is important, ensuring airway patency takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's ability to breathe. Administering Dobutamine may be necessary to improve cardiac output; however, addressing the airway first is essential to prevent further respiratory distress and worsening dysrhythmias. Starting an IV for monitoring fluid intake is not the most critical intervention in this scenario compared to ensuring airway patency and oxygenation.
Question 2
A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient?
A. The patient is allergic to shellfish.
B. The patient has a pacemaker.
C. The patient suffers from claustrophobia.
D. The patient takes antipsychotic medication.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The patient has a pacemaker.
The correct answer is that the patient has a pacemaker. A pacemaker is a contraindication to MRI scanning due to the interference with the magnetic fields of the MRI scanner. This interference can potentially deactivate the pacemaker, putting the patient at risk. Patients with cardiac implantable electronic devices (CIED) are at risk for inappropriate device therapy, device heating/movement, and arrhythmia during MRI. This necessitates special precautions such as scheduling in a CIED blocked slot or having electrophysiology nurse or technician support. It is important to ensure that the patient's pacemaker is MRI conditional before proceeding with the scan. The other choices, such as being allergic to shellfish, suffering from claustrophobia, or taking antipsychotic medication, are not direct contraindications to undergoing an MRI scan for suspected lung cancer.
Question 3
What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?
A. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions.
B. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness.
C. Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
D. Results are reported in millimeters per hour.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.
Question 4
The client is being discharged to a long-term care (LTC) facility. The nurse is preparing a progress note to communicate to the LTC staff the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not. To do this effectively, the nurse should:
A. Formulate post-discharge nursing diagnoses
B. Draw conclusion about resolution of current client problems
C. Assess the client for baseline data to be used at the LTC facility
D. Plan the care that is needed in the LTC facility
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Draw conclusion about resolution of current client problems
To effectively communicate the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not to the LTC staff, the nurse should draw conclusions about the resolution of the current client problems. Terminal evaluation is performed to determine the client's condition at discharge, focusing on which goals were achieved and which were not. Formulating post-discharge nursing diagnoses (option A) is not the most appropriate action in this scenario as it focuses on identifying potential problems after discharge rather than evaluating achieved goals. Assessing the client for baseline data (option C) is not necessary at this point as the focus is on evaluating outcomes rather than collecting baseline data. Planning the care needed in the LTC facility (option D) is premature as this should be done on admission to the LTC facility and not during the discharge process.
Question 5
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer both drugs.
B. Administer the spironolactone.
C. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide.
D. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the healthcare provider.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Administer the spironolactone.
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.
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Question 6
A patient with stage I nonsmall cell lung cancer expresses a preference for chemotherapy over surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Are you concerned about the potential pain from surgery?
B. Have you had negative experiences with previous surgeries?
C. Surgery is the recommended treatment for stage I lung cancer.
D. Tell me about your understanding of the different available treatments.
Correct answer:
The most appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to gather more information about the patient's concerns and preferences. By asking the patient to share their understanding of the available treatments, the nurse encourages open communication and gains insight into the patient's knowledge and preferences. Option A focuses solely on pain, which may not be the patient's primary concern. Option B assumes negative experiences without exploring the patient's current thoughts. Option C, stating that surgery is the recommended treatment, dismisses the patient's preference and does not address their concerns. Chemotherapy is not the primary treatment for nonsmall cell lung cancer; it may be used for nonresectable tumors or as adjuvant therapy to surgery, making it crucial for the nurse to explore the patient's treatment preferences and understanding.
A nurse is caring for a 2-day-old infant who has a bilirubin level of 19 mg/dl. The physician has ordered phototherapy. Which of the following actions indicates correct preparation of the infant for this procedure?
A. Undress the baby down to a diaper and hat
B. Place the baby in his mother's arms before turning on the light
C. Position the phototherapy light approximately 3 inches above the baby's skin
D. Secure eye protection for the infant without occluding the nose
Correct answer:
Phototherapy is used to treat high levels of bilirubin among infants, typically evidenced as jaundice. The nurse must position the infant carefully during this procedure to maximize the benefits of the light therapy while protecting the baby. Placing protective eyewear over the baby's eyes without covering the nose is crucial to shield the eyes from the ultraviolet light. Undressing the baby down to a diaper and hat (Choice A) is a standard practice to maximize skin exposure to the phototherapy light. Placing the baby in his mother's arms before turning on the light (Choice B) is not necessary for the preparation of the infant for phototherapy. Positioning the phototherapy light approximately 3 inches above the baby's skin (Choice C) is incorrect as the distance should be as recommended by the healthcare provider based on the manufacturer's instructions.
The client is seven (7) days post total hip replacement. Which statement by the client requires the nurse's immediate attention?
A. I have bad muscle spasms in my lower leg of the affected extremity.
B. I just can't 'catch my breath' over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger.
C. I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to 2 hours.
D. It seems that the pain medication is not working as well today.
Correct answer:
While all statements by the client require attention, the most critical one that demands immediate action is option B. Clients who have undergone hip or knee surgery are at an increased risk of postoperative pulmonary embolism. Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia are hallmark signs of this condition. Without appropriate prophylaxis such as anticoagulant therapy, deep vein thrombosis (DVT) can develop within 7 to 14 days after surgery, potentially leading to pulmonary embolism. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize signs of DVT, which include pain, tenderness, skin discoloration, swelling, or tightness in the affected leg. Signs of pulmonary embolism include sudden onset dyspnea, tachycardia, confusion, and pleuritic chest pain. Option B indicates a potentially life-threatening situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications.
A nurse is asked to perform a task that she believes is outside her scope of practice. What is the appropriate response to this issue?
A. Contact the state board of nursing licensure to report the offense
B. Review the state scope of practice standards for nurses
C. Ask another nurse to perform the task to learn the procedure
D. Contact the house supervisor to make the decision on whether the nurse should perform the task
Correct answer:
When faced with a task that a nurse believes may be beyond their scope of practice, it is essential to refer to the state's specific scope of practice standards for nurses. This step is crucial as these standards can vary between states, providing clarity on what tasks are permissible. By reviewing these standards, the nurse can determine if the task falls within their scope of practice. Contacting the state board of nursing licensure to report the offense (Choice A) is premature and should only be considered if there is a serious violation after reviewing the scope of practice. Asking another nurse to perform the task (Choice C) does not address the issue of clarifying the scope of practice. Contacting the house supervisor (Choice D) may be necessary if the nurse cannot determine the appropriateness of the task based on the scope of practice standards.
The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. After being told the patient has been smoking cigarettes for 30 years, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
A. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
B. A widened chest cavity
C. Clubbed fingers
D. An increased risk of cardiac failure
Correct answer:
1. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC): Forced Vital Capacity is the volume of air exhaled from full inhalation to full exhalation. A patient with COPD would have a decrease in FVC. Therefore, this choice is incorrect. 2. A widened chest cavity: A patient with COPD often presents with a 'barrel chest,' which is seen as a widened chest cavity. Hence, a narrowed chest cavity is not an expected finding. 3. Clubbed fingers - CORRECT: Clubbed fingers are a sign of a long-term, or chronic, decrease in oxygen levels, which is commonly seen in patients with chronic respiratory conditions like Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. 4. An increased risk of cardiac failure: Although a patient with these conditions would indeed be at an increased risk for cardiac failure, this is a potential complication and not an assessment finding, making it an incorrect choice.
A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?
A. Blood sugar check
B. CT scan
C. Blood cultures
D. Arterial blood gases
Correct answer:
In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.
An adult patient is at the clinic for a physical examination. The patient states that they are feeling 'very anxious' about the physical examination. What steps can the nurse take to make the patient more comfortable?
A. Appear unhurried and confident when examining the patient.
B. Leave the room when the patient undresses unless they need assistance.
C. Ask the patient to change into an examining gown and to leave their undergarments on.
D. Measure vital signs at the beginning of the examination to gradually accustom the patient.
Correct answer:
To help alleviate the patient's anxiety, the nurse should appear unhurried and confident during the examination. This can make the patient feel more at ease and reassured. It is important for the nurse to respect the patient's privacy by leaving the room while the patient changes unless assistance is needed. The patient should be instructed to change into an examining gown while leaving their undergarments on, providing a sense of comfort and familiarity. Additionally, measuring vital signs at the beginning of the examination can help gradually acclimate the patient to the process, making it less overwhelming. Therefore, the correct answer is to appear unhurried and confident when examining the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the patient's anxiety or provide comfort in the same way as the correct answer.
A 70-year-old man has a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg in a lying position, 130/80 mm Hg in a sitting position, and 100/60 mm Hg in a standing position. How should the nurse evaluate these findings?
A. These readings are a normal response and attributable to changes in the patient's position.
B. The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.
C. The blood pressure reading in the lying position is within normal limits.
D. The change in blood pressure readings is considered within normal limits for the patient's age.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is, 'The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.' Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic pressure of ³20 mm Hg or ³10 mm Hg drop in diastolic pressure that occurs with a quick change to a standing position. This condition is common in individuals on prolonged bed rest, older adults, those with hypovolemia, or taking specific medications. The blood pressure readings provided in the question (150/90 mm Hg lying, 130/80 mm Hg sitting, and 100/60 mm Hg standing) demonstrate a significant change in blood pressure with position changes, which is indicative of orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the readings do not indicate a normal response or blood pressure within normal limits for the patient's age; rather, they suggest the presence of orthostatic hypotension.
Richard is a 72-year-old with stage 4 lung cancer who has been admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. He is alert and oriented and states he would like to sign a do not resuscitate (DNR) order. His wife enters the room after he has signed it and is very upset that he has made this decision without discussing it with her. She wants to know what she can do to get the DNR reversed. What should your first response be?
A. Contact the unit manager to talk with her
B. Contact the hospital's attorney to discuss with her
C. Try to talk Richard out of his decision
D. Offer caring support for both parties
Correct answer:
The correct response in this situation is to offer caring support for both parties. Richard, being alert and oriented, has the right to make his own decisions, including signing a do not resuscitate (DNR) order. It is important to respect his autonomy while also acknowledging his wife's feelings. By offering caring support, the nurse can facilitate a discussion between Richard and his wife, helping them navigate their emotions and decisions. Contacting the unit manager or hospital's attorney would not be appropriate as the initial response. These actions may escalate the situation and are not focused on addressing the emotional needs of the couple. Trying to talk Richard out of his decision would disregard his autonomy and right to make choices about his own care, which goes against ethical principles of patient autonomy and informed decision-making.
A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?
A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
B. A postoperative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is a patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. These patients are at high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias, which may result in syncope. Patients with atrial tachycardia and fatigue (Choice D) would not typically require an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator as their primary issue is related to atrial arrhythmias. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage (Choice A) or postoperative coronary bypass patients recovering on schedule (Choice B) are not necessarily at high risk for ventricular arrhythmias and would not be the primary candidates for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 6 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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