NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 4
NCLEX-RN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questionsset 4
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-RN exam guide or more NCLEX-RN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A client is brought into the emergency department after finishing a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. The client is experiencing dyspnea, chest tightness, and agitation. Her blood pressure is 88/58, she has generalized hives over her body, and her lips and tongue are swollen. After the nurse calls for help, what is the next appropriate action?
A. Start an IV and administer a 1-liter bolus of Lactated Ringer's solution
B. Administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine IM
C. Administer 15 mg diphenhydramine IM
D. Monitor the client until help arrives
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine IM
A client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction will likely present with rash or hives, swelling of the lips, face, or tongue, hypotension, or dyspnea. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of anaphylaxis with dyspnea, chest tightness, hives, hypotension, and swelling of the lips and tongue. The next appropriate action would be to administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine intramuscularly. Epinephrine helps relax the muscles of the airway, improve breathing, and increase oxygenation, which is crucial in managing anaphylaxis. Starting an IV and administering fluids can be important but not the immediate priority. Diphenhydramine may be used as an adjunct therapy but should not delay the administration of epinephrine in the acute phase of anaphylaxis. Monitoring the client without providing immediate treatment can lead to a worsening of the anaphylactic reaction, potentially resulting in a life-threatening situation.
Question 2
You are on the unit and overhear another nurse talking on the phone to a patient's friend who wants to see her patient who is comatose and on a ventilator. Since you cared for that patient yesterday, you know that the patient's significant other, who is also the designated healthcare surrogate (HCS) and has power of attorney (POA), has expressly stated that he wants this person on the list for restricted visitors. The nurse whispers that she'll call him to visit as soon as the significant other has gone home. What should your first response be?
A. Inform the significant other
B. Report the nurse to the nurse manager
C. Speak with the nurse directly in private
D. Call the visitor and tell him he can't visit
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Speak with the nurse directly in private
Speaking with the nurse directly and privately is the most constructive manner in which to handle this situation and advocate for the significant other's wishes. Doing so will open communication with a peer and build the relationship, instead of alienating the other nurse by taking action that does not involve her and will cast her in a negative light with others. It is essential to express your concerns regarding honoring the significant other's requests and rights regarding the limitation of visitors. Option A is incorrect because the significant other is not the one trying to visit, and it is more appropriate to address the nurse directly first. Option B is not the best initial response as it may escalate the situation without giving the nurse a chance to correct the issue. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the issue at its source and may create further conflict without resolving the underlying problem.
Question 3
Your patient has been diagnosed with acute bronchitis. You should expect that all of the following will be ordered EXCEPT:
A. Increased fluid intake
B. Cough medications
C. Antibiotics
D. Use of a vaporizer
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Antibiotics
In the management of acute bronchitis, antibiotics are not typically prescribed unless there is a confirmed bacterial infection. Acute bronchitis is usually caused by a virus, so antibiotics are not effective in treating it. The primary focus is on symptom management and supportive care. Increased fluid intake helps keep the airway moist and liquefy secretions, aiding in their removal. Cough medications can help relieve cough symptoms. The use of a vaporizer can help moisten the air, making breathing more comfortable for the patient. It is crucial to differentiate between viral and bacterial causes of respiratory infections to avoid unnecessary antibiotic use and prevent antibiotic resistance. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Antibiotics.' Increased fluid intake, cough medications, and the use of a vaporizer are commonly recommended for managing symptoms and improving comfort in patients with acute bronchitis.
Question 4
A patient asks the nurse whether he is a good candidate to use a CPAP machine. The nurse reviews the client's history. Which condition would contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine?
A. The patient is in the late stage of dementia.
B. The patient has a history of bronchitis.
C. The patient has had suicidal gestures/attempts in the past.
D. The patient is on beta-blockers.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — The patient is in the late stage of dementia.
The correct answer is that the patient is in the late stage of dementia. In late-stage dementia, individuals may have an inability to follow commands and understand instructions independently, which are essential for proper installation and use of a CPAP machine. This makes using a CPAP machine challenging and potentially ineffective for patients in this condition.
Choice B, having a history of bronchitis, does not contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. In fact, CPAP therapy can be beneficial for patients with respiratory conditions like bronchitis.
Choice C, a history of suicidal gestures/attempts, while concerning for the patient's mental health, does not directly contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine.
Choice D, being on beta-blockers, is not a contraindication for CPAP machine use. Beta-blockers are commonly used medications for various conditions and do not interfere with the use of a CPAP machine.
Question 5
A patient's blood pressure is 118/82 mm Hg. The patient asks the nurse, "What do the numbers mean?"? Which is the best reply by the nurse?
A. "The numbers are within the normal range and are nothing to worry about."?
B. "The bottom number is the diastolic pressure and reflects the pressure in the arteries when the heart relaxes."?
C. "The top number is the systolic blood pressure and reflects the pressure of the blood against the arteries when the heart contracts."?
D. "The concept of blood pressure can be complex. The primary thing to be concerned about is the top number, or the systolic blood pressure."?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — "The top number is the systolic blood pressure and reflects the pressure of the blood against the arteries when the heart contracts."?
The systolic pressure is the maximum pressure felt on the artery during left ventricular contraction, or systole. The diastolic pressure is the elastic recoil, or resting, pressure that the blood constantly exerts in between each contraction. The nurse should answer the patient's question in terms they can understand and not just say it is normal and there is nothing to worry about. The diastolic pressure is the pressure in the vessels when the heart is at rest, not the stroke volume. Both the systolic and diastolic blood pressure are important. Choice A is incorrect as providing a vague reassurance does not address the patient's query. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the diastolic pressure as reflecting stroke volume, which is incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the explanation, focusing solely on the top number without providing a complete understanding of blood pressure.
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Question 6
When measuring the vital signs of a 6-month-old infant, which action by the nurse is correct?
A. Respirations are measured first, followed by pulse and temperature.
B. Vital signs should be measured as frequently as in an adult.
C. Procedures are explained to the parent, and the infant is encouraged to handle the equipment.
D. The nurse should first measure the infant's vital signs before performing a physical examination.
Correct answer:
When assessing vital signs in a 6-month-old infant, the correct order is to measure respirations first, followed by pulse and temperature. This sequence is important to avoid potential alterations in respiratory and pulse rates caused by factors like crying or discomfort. Measuring the temperature first, especially rectally, may lead to an increase in respiratory and pulse rates, which can skew the results. It is crucial to follow this specific order to obtain accurate baseline values. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Option B is incorrect as the frequency of measuring vital signs in infants differs based on individual needs rather than being consistently more frequent than in adults. Option C is not directly related to the correct sequence for measuring vital signs in infants. Option D is incorrect because the physical examination typically follows the assessment of vital signs in clinical practice.
One major difference between long term care and respite centers is the fact that long term care facilities:
A. provide both physical and emotional care on an ongoing basis, while respite centers offer only temporary services.
B. provide care for residents on a long-term basis, while respite centers offer only outpatient services.
C. provide care for residents on a long-term basis, while respite centers offer only temporary services.
D. There is no difference. Long-term care and respite care are the same.
Correct answer:
The major difference between long-term care and respite centers is that long-term care facilities provide both physical and emotional care on an ongoing, long-term basis. This continuous care is essential for residents who require extended assistance. In contrast, respite centers offer temporary services, providing similar care but for a short-term duration. These short-term services are designed to give family caregivers a break from their daily responsibilities. Choice A is incorrect because both long-term care and respite centers can offer both physical and emotional care, but the key distinction lies in the duration of care provided. Choice B is incorrect as respite centers do not typically offer outpatient services, and the focus is on temporary relief rather than long-term care. Choice D is incorrect as the question clearly highlights a major difference between long-term care and respite centers.
While taking the health history of a 70-year-old patient being treated for a Duodenal Ulcer, the nurse learns that the patient is complaining of epigastric pain. What assessment finding would the nurse expect to note?
A. Melena
B. Nausea
C. Hernia
D. Hyperthermia
Correct answer:
Melena is the passage of black, tarry stools due to the presence of blood in the gastrointestinal tract, usually originating from the upper digestive system. In the context of a Duodenal Ulcer, melena can occur as a result of bleeding in the duodenum or the upper part of the small intestine. This finding is significant as it indicates potential gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a common complication of duodenal ulcers. Nausea (Choice B) is a nonspecific symptom that may be present with various gastrointestinal conditions but is not specific to duodenal ulcers. Hernia (Choice C) involves the protrusion of an organ through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it and is not directly related to the symptoms of a duodenal ulcer. Hyperthermia (Choice D), which refers to an elevated body temperature, is not typically associated with duodenal ulcers unless there are severe complications present.
After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Teach about drug-resistant TB treatment
B. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed
C. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly
D. Discuss with the healthcare provider the need for the patient to use an injectable antibiotic
Correct answer:
The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed. Teaching about drug-resistant TB treatment (Choice A) is premature without knowing the current medication compliance status. Scheduling directly observed therapy (Choice C) assumes non-compliance without confirming it first. Discussing the need for an injectable antibiotic (Choice D) is premature and not necessarily indicated without assessing the current medication adherence.
After a symptom is recognized, the first effort at treatment is often self-treatment. Which of the following statements is true about self-treatment?
A. "Not recognized as valuable by most health care providers."?
B. "Usually ineffective and may delay more effective treatment."?
C. "Always less expensive than biomedical alternatives."?
D. "Influenced by the accessibility of over-the-counter medicines."?
Correct answer:
After a symptom is identified, the first effort at treatment is often self-treatment. The availability of over-the-counter medications, the relatively high literacy level of Americans, and the influence of the internet and mass media in communicating health-related information to the general population have contributed to the high percentage of cases of self-treatment. Health care providers are recognizing the value of a wide variety of alternative, complementary, and traditional interventions. Many self-treatments, such as over-the-counter medications, are effective. Self-treatment is not always less expensive. Choice A is incorrect as health care providers are recognizing the value of self-treatment. Choice B is incorrect because self-treatment can be effective in many cases. Choice C is incorrect as self-treatment is not always less expensive; it depends on the specific treatment being used.
During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Bulimia nervosa
D. Systemic sclerosis
Correct answer:
The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.
The nurse palpates the posterior chest while the patient says 99 and notes absent fremitus. What action should the nurse take next?
A. Auscultate anterior and posterior breath sounds bilaterally
B. Encourage the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe
C. Review the chest x-ray report for evidence of pneumonia
D. Palpate the anterior chest and observe for barrel chest
Correct answer:
To assess for tactile fremitus, the nurse should use the palms of the hands to assess for vibration when the patient repeats a word or phrase such as '99'. After noting absent fremitus, the nurse should then auscultate the lungs to assess for the presence or absence of breath sounds. Absent fremitus may be noted with conditions like pneumothorax or atelectasis. The vibration is increased in conditions such as pneumonia, lung tumors, thick bronchial secretions, and pleural effusion. Encouraging the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe is an appropriate intervention for atelectasis, but assessing breath sounds takes priority. Fremitus is decreased if the hand is farther from the lung or the lung is hyperinflated (barrel chest). Palpating the anterior chest for fremitus is less effective due to the presence of large muscles and breast tissue, making auscultation a more appropriate next step.
A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?
A. Start giving the patient discharge teaching on the day of discharge
B. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching
C. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge
D. Arrange for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching
Correct answer:
Hypoxemia interferes with the patient's ability to learn and retain information, so having the patient's caregiver present will increase the likelihood that discharge instructions will be followed. Having the patient repeat the instructions will indicate that the information is understood at the time, but it does not guarantee retention of the information. Giving discharge instructions just before discharge is not ideal as the patient is likely to be distracted and anxious at that time. Teaching the patient about discharge on the day of admission is not recommended because the patient may be more hypoxemic and anxious than usual, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain the information effectively. Therefore, arranging for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching session is the best option to ensure proper compliance and understanding of the discharge instructions.
Which of the following is a negative outcome associated with impaired mobility?
A. Increased amounts of calcium are absorbed from circulation
B. A drop in blood pressure occurs when rising from a sitting to a standing position
C. The amount of mucus in the bronchi and lungs decreases
D. The vessel walls of the circulatory system thicken
Correct answer:
A client with impaired mobility may develop changes in body systems that put them at risk of further illness or injury. One negative outcome associated with impaired mobility is orthostatic hypotension, where blood pressure drops significantly when moving from a sitting or lying position to a standing position. This drop in blood pressure can lead to symptoms such as dizziness or fainting. This occurs because blood circulates more slowly or pools in the distal extremities due to impaired mobility.
Choice A is incorrect because increased calcium absorption is not a typical negative outcome associated with impaired mobility.
Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in mucus in the bronchi and lungs is not a common negative outcome of impaired mobility.
Choice D is incorrect because thickening of vessel walls in the circulatory system is not directly associated with impaired mobility.
Which playroom activities should the nurse organize for a small group of 7-year-old hospitalized children?
A. Sports and games with rules
B. Finger paints and water play
C. Dress-up clothes and props
D. Chess and television programs
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'Sports and games with rules.' For 7-year-old children, organized activities that involve rules are beneficial as they promote cooperation, logical reasoning, and the development of social skills. Sports and games with rules help children understand the importance of following guidelines, playing fairly, and working together towards a common goal. Finger paints and water play (choice B) may be more suitable for younger children and may not fully engage 7-year-olds in the same way that structured games would. Dress-up clothes and props (choice C) primarily encourage imaginative play but may not emphasize the same level of cooperation and rule-following as sports and games. Chess and television programs (choice D) may not be as interactive or physically engaging as sports and games, limiting the opportunities for social interaction and cooperation among the children.
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 4 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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