NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 28
NCLEX-RN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questionsset 28
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-RN exam guide or more NCLEX-RN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle, resulting in head trauma. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern?
A. Bulging anterior fontanel
B. Repeated vomiting
C. Signs of sleepiness at 10 PM
D. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Repeated vomiting
Increased intracranial pressure after head trauma can lead to serious complications. Repeated vomiting is a concerning sign as it can indicate stimulation of the vomiting center within the brainstem due to increased pressure. This can be an early indicator of raised intracranial pressure and the need for urgent medical intervention. Bulging anterior fontanel may not be immediately apparent in a 4-year-old child and is more common in infants. Signs of sleepiness at a particular time of day are not specific to increased intracranial pressure. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches may indicate vision problems but is not directly related to intracranial pressure.
Question 2
Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient diagnosed with a lung abscess?
A. Teach the patient to avoid using over-the-counter expectorants.
B. Assist the patient with chest physiotherapy and postural drainage.
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately regarding any bloody or foul-smelling sputum.
D. Teach about the necessity of prolonged antibiotic therapy after discharge from the hospital.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Teach about the necessity of prolonged antibiotic therapy after discharge from the hospital.
For a patient diagnosed with a lung abscess, the priority intervention is to educate them about the importance of prolonged antibiotic therapy post-hospital discharge. Long-term antibiotic treatment is crucial for eradicating the infecting organisms in a lung abscess. Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage are not recommended for lung abscess as they can potentially spread the infection. While foul-smelling and bloody sputum are common in lung abscess, immediate notification to the healthcare provider is essential. Avoiding the use of over-the-counter expectorants is not necessary, as expectorants can be used to facilitate coughing and clearing of secretions in this condition.
Question 3
A two-year-old child has sustained an injury to the leg and refuses to walk. The nurse in the emergency department documents swelling of the lower affected leg. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the cause of the child's symptoms?
A. Possible fracture of the tibia.
B. Bruising of the gastrocnemius muscle.
C. Possible fracture of the radius.
D. No anatomic injury, the child wants his mother to carry him.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Possible fracture of the tibia.
The child's refusal to walk, along with swelling of the lower leg, indicates a possible fracture, specifically of the tibia. Fractures can cause pain and swelling, leading to difficulty or refusal to bear weight on the affected limb. Choice B, bruising of the gastrocnemius muscle, would not typically result in the child refusing to walk. Choice C, a possible fracture of the radius, is less likely given the location of the swelling and the associated refusal to walk. Choice D, stating no anatomic injury and attributing the child's behavior to wanting to be carried by the mother, is incorrect as the physical findings suggest a potential fracture that needs to be evaluated further.
Question 4
The healthcare provider is examining a patient who is reporting "feeling cold."? Which is a mechanism of heat loss in the body?
A. Exercise
B. Radiation
C. Metabolism
D. Food digestion
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Radiation
When the body needs to lose heat, one of the mechanisms it employs is radiation. Radiation involves the transfer of heat from the body to the environment in the form of infrared waves. While metabolism, exercise, and food digestion contribute to heat production, they are not mechanisms for heat loss. Metabolism generates heat as a byproduct, exercise increases metabolic rate leading to heat production, and food digestion involves some heat generation, but these processes do not directly facilitate heat loss. Therefore, in the scenario where the patient is feeling cold, radiation is the primary mechanism for the body to lose excess heat and maintain a stable internal temperature.
Question 5
For a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following nursing actions can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing the patient for jaundice
B. Providing oral hygiene after a meal
C. Palpating the abdomen for distention
D. Assisting the patient to choose the diet
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Providing oral hygiene after a meal
Providing oral hygiene after a meal is an appropriate task to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) as it falls within their scope of practice. UAP can assist with basic personal care activities like oral hygiene. Assessing the patient for jaundice and palpating the abdomen for distention involve making clinical assessments that require a higher level of education and training, typically performed by licensed practical/vocational nurses (LPNs/LVNs) or registered nurses (RNs). Assisting the patient to choose the diet also requires specialized knowledge and would be more appropriate for a nurse to address, considering the complexity of dietary requirements in cirrhosis.
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Question 6
Which of the following diseases or disorders is acute?
A. Pneumonia
B. Paralysis
C. Alzheimer's disease
D. Diabetes
Correct answer:
The correct answer is Pneumonia. Pneumonia is an acute illness characterized by inflammation of the air sacs in the lungs. It comes on suddenly and typically lasts for a short duration. Treatment can help cure pneumonia. Paralysis, Alzheimer's disease, and Diabetes are chronic conditions. Paralysis is the loss of muscle function in part of the body, usually permanent. Alzheimer's disease is a progressive brain disorder leading to memory loss and cognitive decline, and it is incurable. Diabetes is a chronic condition that affects how your body turns food into energy, and it requires lifelong management. Therefore, Pneumonia is the only acute condition among the options provided.
A parent calls the pediatric clinic and is frantic about the bottle of cleaning fluid her child drank for 20 minutes. Which of the following is the most important instruction the nurse can give the parent?
A. This too shall pass.
B. Take the child immediately to the ER
C. Contact the Poison Control Center quickly
D. Give the child syrup of ipecac
Correct answer:
In situations where a child has ingested a potentially harmful substance, contacting the Poison Control Center quickly is crucial. The Poison Control Center can provide specific guidance tailored to the child's situation, which can include whether immediate medical attention is necessary or if any actions need to be taken at home. Option A, 'This too shall pass,' is not appropriate as it dismisses the seriousness of the situation. Option B, 'Take the child immediately to the ER,' may not always be the best course of action without guidance from experts. Option D, 'Give the child syrup of ipecac,' is outdated advice and not recommended as a first response to poisoning incidents.
A nurse is assigned to care for a deaf client. During her lunch hour, she visits the hospital library and reads more about deaf culture in order to better provide appropriate care for her client. This action is an example of:
A. Cultural knowledge
B. Cultural noise
C. Cultural diversity
D. Cultural divide
Correct answer:
Cultural knowledge involves seeking information and educating oneself about different cultural groups. In this scenario, the nurse is demonstrating cultural knowledge by learning more about deaf culture to improve the care provided to the deaf client. This proactive approach helps in understanding the client's background, beliefs, and communication preferences, leading to better outcomes. 'Cultural noise' and 'Cultural divide' are incorrect as they do not reflect the nurse's positive action of seeking knowledge to enhance care. 'Cultural diversity' is also incorrect as it does not accurately describe the nurse's specific action of acquiring knowledge about a particular culture.
A client presents with symptoms of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, fever, chills, and extreme fatigue. Based on these symptoms, which of the following illnesses could the nurse consider for this client?
A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
B. Hepatitis B
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Norovirus infection
Correct answer:
Infectious mononucleosis is a viral disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The symptoms of sore throat, fever, chills, swollen lymph nodes, and extreme fatigue are characteristic of infectious mononucleosis. The diagnosis is confirmed through the client's history and blood tests for the Epstein-Barr virus. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) presents with localized skin infections, not the systemic symptoms described. Hepatitis B typically presents with jaundice, abdominal pain, and liver inflammation, not the symptoms described. Norovirus infection commonly causes gastrointestinal symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea, not the symptoms presented by the client.
A client asks the nurse about including her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. Which of the following is an appropriate initial statement by the nurse?
A. Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.
B. Tell each child what he can do to help with the baby.
C. Suggest that your husband spend more time with the boys.
D. Ask the children what they would like to do for the newborn.
Correct answer:
It is essential for the nurse to guide the client on the initial steps in involving her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. The most appropriate response is to 'Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.' In an expanded family, parents should prioritize reassuring older children that they are loved and as important as the newborn. This response acknowledges the importance of ensuring the well-being and emotional adjustment of the older siblings during the transition period. Choices B, C, and D are less appropriate as they do not directly address the emotional needs and adjustment of the older children during this significant family change.
You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's refrigerator. Which of the following drugs, if found inside the fridge, should be removed?
A. Nadolol (Corgard)
B. Opened (in-use) Humulin N injection
C. Urokinase (Kinlytic)
D. Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen)
Correct answer:
Nadolol (Corgard) should be removed if found inside the fridge because it is supposed to be stored at room temperature between 59 to 86 ºF (15 and 30 ºC) away from heat, moisture, and light. Storing it in the refrigerator can alter its effectiveness and stability.
Option B, the opened Humulin N injection, should not be stored in the refrigerator as it is an in-use product and can remain at room temperature for a certain period as per manufacturer guidelines. Option C, Urokinase (Kinlytic), and Option D, Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen), do not require refrigeration and can be stored at room temperature. Therefore, Nadolol (Corgard) is the drug that should be removed from the fridge.
A patient diagnosed with a mild anxiety disorder has been referred to treatment in a community mental health center. Treatment most likely provided by the center includes
A. Medical management of symptoms
B. Daily psychotherapy
C. Constant staff supervision
D. Psychological stabilization
Correct answer:
Community mental health centers focus on rehabilitation, vocational needs, education, and socialization, as well as on the management of symptoms and medication. For a patient with a mild anxiety disorder, the primary focus would be on providing medical management of symptoms, such as prescribing appropriate medications and monitoring their effectiveness. Daily psychotherapy is not typically provided in community mental health centers for mild cases, as it may not be necessary. Constant staff supervision and psychological stabilization are more suited for patients requiring a higher level of care or in acute settings where continuous monitoring and stabilization are essential.
A patient works with a nurse to establish outcomes. The nurse believes that one outcome suggested by the patient is not in the patient's best interest. What is the nurse's best action?
A. Remain silent.
B. Educate the patient that the outcome is not realistic.
C. Explore with the patient possible consequences of the outcome.
D. Formulate an appropriate outcome without the patient's input.
Correct answer:
In this scenario, the nurse should collaborate with the patient rather than impose personal opinions. While the nurse should respect the patient's autonomy, they also have a duty to provide guidance. By exploring possible consequences of the suggested outcome with the patient, the nurse can facilitate a discussion that helps the patient make an informed decision. This approach respects the patient's input while ensuring their well-being. Remaining silent (Choice A) may not address the issue, educating the patient unilaterally (Choice B) may be perceived as dismissive, and formulating an outcome without patient input (Choice D) disregards the patient's autonomy and preferences.
A physician asks you to place the patient with his dorsal side facing the exam table. Which of the following accurately describes how the patient is positioned?
A. The patient is lying prone.
B. The patient is lying supine.
C. The patient is lying in the recovery position.
D. The patient is lying on his stomach.
Correct answer:
When the physician asks for the patient to be placed with their dorsal side facing the exam table, it means the patient should be lying on their back. This position is known as the supine position, where the patient's back is on the table, facing up towards the ceiling. Choice A, 'The patient is lying prone,' is incorrect as the prone position is when the patient is lying face down. Choice C, 'The patient is lying in the recovery position,' is incorrect as the recovery position is a lateral position typically used in first aid. Choice D, 'The patient is lying on his stomach,' is incorrect as it describes the prone position, not the supine position as required in this scenario.
A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?
A. Oculogyric crisis
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Nystagmus
D. Dysphagia
Correct answer:
Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 28 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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