NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 24
NCLEX-RN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questionsset 24
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-RN exam guide or more NCLEX-RN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
What intervention should the nurse implement while a client is having a grand mal seizure?
A. Open the jaw and place a bite block between the teeth
B. Try to place the client on his side
C. Restrain the client to prevent injury
D. Place pillows around the client
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Try to place the client on his side
During a grand mal seizure, the client is at risk of injury due to severe, involuntary muscle spasms and contractions. It is crucial for the nurse to avoid restraining the client or inserting objects into their mouth, as these actions may lead to further harm. Placing the client on their side can help facilitate the drainage of oral secretions and assist in maintaining an open airway, reducing the risk of aspiration. Restraint should be avoided as it can exacerbate muscle contractions and increase the risk of injury. Placing pillows around the client may not provide adequate support or protection during the seizure, making it a less effective intervention compared to positioning the client on their side.
Question 2
Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement?
A. Dry dressing
B. Transparent dressing
C. Composite dressing
D. Wet to dry dressing
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Wet to dry dressing
The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.
Question 3
An older adult patient brought to the emergency department by a family member is wandering outside, saying, "I can't find my way home."? The patient is confused and unable to answer questions. What is the nurse's best action?
A. Document the patient's mental status and obtain other assessment data from the family member.
B. Record the patient's answers to questions on the nursing assessment form.
C. Ask an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview.
D. Call for a mental health advocate to maintain the patient's rights.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Document the patient's mental status and obtain other assessment data from the family member.
In this scenario, the patient is confused and unable to answer questions. When the patient is unable to provide information, it is important to use secondary sources such as family members. The nurse's best action is to document the patient's mental status and obtain additional assessment data from the family member. This approach will help gather relevant information about the patient's condition. Asking an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview is not necessary as it is within the staff nurse's scope of practice. Calling for a mental health advocate is also unnecessary at this point as the priority is to assess the patient's condition and gather information from the family member.
Question 4
What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?
A. Decrease the patient's evening fluid intake.
B. Teach the patient how to use the Cred method.
C. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only.
D. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Teach the patient how to use the Cred method.
For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.
Question 5
What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?
A. Decrease the patient's evening fluid intake.
B. Teach the patient how to use the Cred method.
C. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only.
D. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Teach the patient how to use the Cred method.
For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
A patient in the emergency room has a fractured left elbow and presents with an unequal radial pulse, swelling, and numbness in the left hand after waiting for 5 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
A. Place the patient in a supine position
B. Ask the patient to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
C. Wrap the fractured area with a snug dressing
D. Start an IV in the other arm.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is to start an IV in the other arm. In this scenario, the patient is showing signs of Acute Compartment Syndrome, a serious condition that occurs due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential tissue damage. Starting an IV is crucial as the patient may require emergency surgery, such as a fasciotomy, to relieve the pressure and prevent further complications. Placing the patient in a supine position, asking about pain levels, or wrapping the fractured area, though important, are not the priority interventions in this critical situation where immediate medical intervention is necessary to prevent irreversible damage or loss of limb.
Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent remarks, 'We just don't know how he caught the disease!' The nurse's response is based on an understanding that
A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules
B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps
C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections
D. It is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection
Correct answer:
Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is generally considered an immune-complex disease in response to a previous B-hemolytic streptococcal infection, typically occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is not an infectious disease but a noninfectious renal condition. Therefore, the parent's belief that the child 'caught' the disease is inaccurate. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a direct streptococcal infection involving the kidney tubules but an immune response to a prior streptococcal infection. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections but with a previous streptococcal infection.
When turning an immobile bedridden client without assistance, which action by the nurse best ensures client safety?
A. Securely grasp the client's arm and leg.
B. Put bed rails up on the side of bed opposite from the nurse.
C. Correctly position and use a turn sheet.
D. Lower the head of the client's bed slowly
Correct answer:
When turning an immobile bedridden client without assistance, the best action to ensure client safety is to put bed rails up on the side of the bed opposite from the nurse. This is important because the nurse can only stand on one side of the bed, so having bed rails on the opposite side prevents the client from falling out of bed. Option A, which suggests securely grasping the client's arm and leg, can potentially cause client injury to the skin or joints. Options C and D, correctly positioning and using a turn sheet, and lowering the head of the client's bed slowly, respectively, are useful techniques during client turning but are of lower priority in terms of safety compared to the use of bed rails.
Which of these statements best describes the characteristics of an effective reward feedback system?
A. Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible
B. Staff is given feedback in equal amounts over time
C. Positive statements precede negative statements
D. Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable
Correct answer:
The correct answer is that specific feedback should be given as close to the event as possible in an effective reward feedback system. This is important because feedback is most useful when provided immediately. Giving feedback promptly reinforces positive behavior and helps in modifying problem behaviors. Providing feedback close to the event helps in ensuring that standards are clearly understood and can be met. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because staff should not be given feedback in equal amounts over time, positive statements do not necessarily have to precede negative statements, and setting performance goals higher than what is attainable can lead to demotivation and decreased performance.
You are preparing to admit a patient with a seizure disorder. Which of the following actions can you delegate to an LPN/LVN?
A. Complete admission assessment.
B. Set up oxygen and suction equipment.
C. Place a padded tongue blade at the bedside.
D. Pad the side rails before the patient arrives.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is to delegate the task of setting up oxygen and suction equipment to the LPN/LVN. This task falls within their scope of practice and can be safely performed by them. Completing the admission assessment (Choice A) typically requires a higher level of assessment and critical thinking, making it more appropriate for a registered nurse. Placing a padded tongue blade at the bedside (Choice C) involves potential airway management, which is a more complex task and should be done by a higher-level provider. Padding the side rails before the patient arrives (Choice D) is a task related to patient safety and should be done by the healthcare team as a whole, not solely delegated to an LPN/LVN.
For a patient who is blood type AB, which blood product can they receive?
A. Plasma from a type B donor
B. Whole blood from a type A donor
C. Packed RBCs from a type O donor
D. All of the above
Correct answer:
A patient with blood type AB has AB antigens on their red blood cells. This means they can only receive blood products that are compatible with these antigens. Choice A is incorrect because an AB patient cannot receive plasma from a type B donor due to the antibodies present in type B plasma. Choice B is incorrect because an AB patient cannot receive whole blood from a type A donor as it contains incompatible antigens. Choice C is the correct answer because an AB patient can receive packed RBCs from a type O donor. Type O donors have no A or B antigens, making their blood compatible for transfusion to recipients with any blood type. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect, and the correct choice is C.
The nurse is preparing to care for an infant who has esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula. Surgery is scheduled to be performed in 1 hour. Intravenous fluids have been initiated, and a nasogastric (NG) tube has been inserted by the primary healthcare provider. The nurse plans care, knowing that which intervention is of highest priority during this preoperative period?
A. Monitor the temperature.
B. Monitor the blood pressure.
C. Reposition the infant frequently.
D. Aspirate the NG tube every 5 to 10 minutes.
Correct answer:
Esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula is a critical neonatal surgical emergency. The highest priority intervention during the preoperative period is to aspirate the NG tube every 5 to 10 minutes to keep the proximal pouch clear of secretions and prevent aspiration. This is crucial in reducing the risk of gastric secretions entering the lungs. Repositioning the infant frequently is not as critical as ensuring the NG tube is aspirated. Monitoring the temperature and blood pressure are important nursing interventions but are not the highest priority in this situation. It is essential to prioritize airway protection and prevent aspiration in this neonate undergoing urgent surgical intervention.
Because of budget cuts in the hospital, the nursing manager informs the staff that they must either rotate to other units more often or take their turns staying home from work. Which principle is this nurse manager demonstrating?
A. Justice
B. Paternalism
C. Veracity
D. Fraternity
Correct answer:
Veracity involves truth-telling, even in challenging situations. In this scenario, the nurse manager is being transparent about the need for staff to rotate units or take turns staying home due to budget cuts. This allows the staff to make informed decisions about their work schedules and potential impact on their pay and work areas. Option A, Justice, does not apply as the focus is on communication and transparency, not fairness. Option B, Paternalism, does not fit as it involves decisions made for others' well-being without their input, which is not the case here. Option D, Fraternity, pertains to unity among individuals, which is not the principle demonstrated by the nurse manager in this situation.
A nursing student is teaching a patient and family about epilepsy prior to the patient's discharge. For which statement should you intervene?
A. "You should avoid consumption of all forms of alcohol."?
B. "Wear your medical alert bracelet at all times."?
C. "Protect your loved one's airway during a seizure."?
D. "It's important to consult with your physician before taking over-the-counter medications."?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is, "It's important to consult with your physician before taking over-the-counter medications."? Patients with epilepsy should not take over-the-counter medications without medical advice due to potential interactions with antiepileptic drugs or triggering seizures. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate statements for a patient with epilepsy, focusing on alcohol avoidance, wearing a medical alert bracelet, and airway protection during a seizure, respectively. Choice D is incorrect because patients with epilepsy need to be cautious about medications due to possible interactions or adverse effects, so consulting with a physician is crucial before taking over-the-counter medications.
Which question should the nurse ask the parents of a child suspected of having glomerulonephritis?
A. Did your child fall off a bike onto the handlebars?
B. Has the child had persistent nausea and vomiting?
C. Has the child been itching or had a rash anytime in the last week?
D. Has the child had a sore throat or a throat infection in the last few weeks?
Correct answer:
Glomerulonephritis refers to a group of kidney disorders characterized by inflammatory injury in the glomerulus. Group A ?-hemolytic streptococcal infection is a common cause of glomerulonephritis. Children with glomerulonephritis often develop symptoms after a throat infection caused by streptococcal bacteria. Therefore, asking about a sore throat or throat infection in the last few weeks is crucial to assess the possible link to glomerulonephritis. Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with the pathophysiology of glomerulonephritis. Asking about falling off a bike, nausea and vomiting, or itching and rash do not provide relevant information for assessing glomerulonephritis in this context.
NCLEX-RN clinical judgment practice questions, set 24 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the NCLEX-RN exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.