NCLEX-PN management of care practice questions, set 5
NCLEX-PN · management of care
NCLEX-PN management of care practice questionsset 5
You decide who to see first, what to delegate, and which order cannot wait. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five management of care questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of the following medications might cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding?
A. Cardizem (diltiazem)
B. Naprosyn (naproxen)
C. Elavil (amitriptyline)
D. Corgard (nadolol)
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Elavil (amitriptyline)
Naprosyn (naproxen) is known to cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding due to its effects on the stomach lining. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate the stomach and increase the risk of UGI bleeding. On the other hand, Cardizem (diltiazem), Elavil (amitriptyline), and Corgard (nadolol) are not typically associated with UGI bleeding. Cardizem is a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension and angina, Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Corgard is a beta-blocker used for hypertension.
Question 2
Regardless of their practice area, nurses should be concerned with:
A. all drug-resistant bacteria.
B. microorganisms that are critical.
C. transmission of microorganisms.
D. overprescription of bacteriostatic drugs.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — transmission of microorganisms.
All nurses should be concerned with preventing the transmission of microorganisms to themselves and others. A primary way to achieve this is through asepsis. Nursing practice emphasizes providing a safe environment to shield clients, family, and healthcare providers from infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While drug-resistant bacteria, critical microorganisms, and overprescription of bacteriostatic drugs are important, nurses' primary focus should be on preventing microorganism transmission to ensure safety and well-being.
Question 3
What is the term for the tendency of a drug to combine with its receptor?
A. potency
B. efficacy
C. kinetics
D. affinity
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — affinity
The correct answer is 'affinity.' Affinity refers to the close relationship or mutual attraction between a drug and its receptor, indicating the strength of the drug-receptor bonding. Potency (Choice A) is related to the dose of a drug needed to produce a specific effect. Efficacy (Choice B) refers to a drug's ability to generate the desired effect. Kinetics (Choice C) deals with forces affecting the motion of material bodies or changes in a system, which is not directly associated with the bonding between a drug and its receptor.
Question 4
Which of the following statements by an adult child of a client with late-stage Alzheimer's disease indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?
A. "I should provide a regular schedule for toileting."?
B. "I should talk to my father less because he can't communicate."?
C. "I should give my father oral care after every meal and bedtime."?
D. "I should assist my father with eating and drinking."?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — "I should talk to my father less because he can't communicate."?
In late-stage Alzheimer's disease, although verbal communication may be challenging or limited, it is essential to maintain communication through talking and non-verbal cues like touching. Limiting communication can lead to feelings of isolation and worsen the emotional well-being of the individual. Choices A, C, and D reflect appropriate care strategies by addressing toileting needs, oral care, and assistance with eating and drinking, which are crucial aspects of caregiving for a client with late-stage Alzheimer's disease.
Question 5
The nurse provides a postoperative client with an analgesic medication and darkens the room before the client goes to sleep for the night. The nurse's actions:
A. help decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex.
B. stimulate hormonal changes in the brain.
C. help the client's circadian rhythm.
D. alert the hypothalamus in the brain.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — help decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex.
The nurse's actions of providing an analgesic medication and darkening the room aim to decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex. Reduction of environmental stimuli, especially light and noise, from the cerebral cortex, which is an area of arousal, facilitates sleep. By decreasing input to this area, the client is more likely to fall asleep and stay asleep. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the scenario does not involve stimulating hormonal changes, influencing the circadian rhythm, or alerting the hypothalamus.
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Question 6
The graduate licensed practical nurse is assigned to care for the client on ventilator support, pending organ donation. Which goal should receive priority?
A. Maintain the client's systolic blood pressure at 70mmHg or greater
B. Maintain the client's urinary output greater than 300cc per hour
C. Maintain the client's body temperature above 33°F rectal
D. Maintain the client's hematocrit below 30%
Correct answer:
When caring for a client on ventilator support pending organ donation, maintaining the systolic blood pressure at 70mmHg or greater is crucial to ensure a proper blood supply to the donor organ. This goal is a priority to maintain the viability of the organ for donation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are unnecessary and not directly related to the immediate goal of organ donation. Maintaining urinary output, body temperature, or hematocrit levels are not the primary concerns in this situation.
Which of the following NSAIDs is most commonly used for a brief period for acute pain?
A. Advil
B. Aleve
C. Toradol
D. Bextra
Correct answer:
Toradol is the correct answer because it is an NSAID known for its effectiveness in managing acute pain for short durations. It can be administered via intramuscular (IM), intravenous (IV), or oral (PO) routes. Advil (choice A) and Aleve (choice B) are commonly used for mild to moderate pain but may not be as effective for acute pain requiring immediate relief. Bextra (choice D) was withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns, making it an inappropriate choice for acute pain management.
Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?
A. to measure uterine size
B. to detect multiple pregnancies
C. to measure renal size
D. to detect foreign bodies
Correct answer:
Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.
While caring for the following clients, a pediatric nurse tells the charge nurse she must leave due to a family emergency. Which client would the charge nurse reassign to an LPN?
A. An eight-year-old in diabetic ketoacidosis
B. A six-year-old in sickle cell crisis
C. A two-month-old with dehydration
D. A five-year-old in skeletal traction
Correct answer:
The correct answer is a five-year-old in skeletal traction. This task is within the scope of practice for an LPN and would need minimal assistance from an RN. The children with diabetic ketoacidosis, sickle cell crisis, and dehydration require close observation, good assessment skills, IVF needs, and medications that would be better managed by an RN. Reassigning the child in skeletal traction to an LPN ensures appropriate care while allowing the RN to focus on the more critical cases.
A small amount of bubbling is seen in the water seal of a pleural drainage system when a client coughs. What should the nurse do?
A. Consider it a normal finding.
B. Check the system for leaks.
C. Clamp the chest tube.
D. Change the drainage system.
Correct answer:
A small amount of bubbling is a normal finding in the water seal of a pleural drainage system when a client coughs. It is only a problem to find continuous, excessive bubbling in the water seal, which indicates a leak. Checking the system for leaks would be appropriate if there is continuous, excessive bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or changing the drainage system is not necessary in response to a small amount of bubbling during a cough, as this is considered a normal finding.
What is a common side effect of Rifampin concerning the client's contact lenses?
A. The client's urine might turn blue.
B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
C. The client's contact lenses might be stained orange.
D. The client's skin might take on a crimson glow.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is that the client's contact lenses might be stained orange. Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained, making this an important side effect for the client to be aware of. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. There is no documented effect of Rifampin causing the client's urine to turn blue, the client remaining infectious for 48 hours, or the client's skin taking on a crimson glow.
The nurse has completed client teaching about introducing solid foods to an infant. To evaluate teaching, the nurse asks the mother to identify an appropriate first solid food. Which of the following is an appropriate response?
A. pureed canned squash
B. pureed apples
C. yogurt
D. infant rice cereal
Correct answer:
The correct answer is infant rice cereal. Single-grain infant cereals are recommended as the first solid food because they are easily digestible and have added iron content. Choice C, yogurt, is incorrect because yogurt is a milk product and should be delayed until the child is 12 months old due to the risk of milk allergy. Choices A and B are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are typically introduced after cereals to help the infant get accustomed to solid foods gradually.
The nurse is educating a teenage female about preventing the transmission of genital herpes. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
A. "Do not sit on toilet seats without protection."?
B. "Oral sex can transmit the virus."?
C. "This infection can be transmitted via intercourse even when you do not feel ill."?
D. "Try to drink plenty of fluids after sex to flush the reproductive tract."?
Correct answer:
Genital herpes can be transmitted through oral, genital, and anal sex. It is crucial to educate the patient that the infection can be transmitted via intercourse even when asymptomatic to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as sitting on toilet seats without protection does not transmit genital herpes. Choice B is incorrect because oral sex can transmit the virus. Choice D is also incorrect as drinking fluids after sex does not prevent the transmission of genital herpes.
In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?
A. ability to speak
B. ability to hear
C. oxygen saturation
D. adventitious breath sounds
Correct answer:
In an emergency situation, assessing the client's ability to speak is crucial in determining airway obstruction. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed. Choices B and C, assessing the ability to hear and oxygen saturation, are not directly indicative of an airway obstruction. Choice D, adventitious breath sounds, may be present in conditions like asthma or pneumonia but are not specific to determining an airway obstruction.
Following an automobile accident that caused a head injury to an adult client, the nurse observes that the client sleeps for long periods of time. The nurse determines that the client has experienced injury to the:
A. hypothalamus.
B. thalamus.
C. cortex.
D. medulla.
Correct answer:
The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating sleep patterns among other functions. Injury to the hypothalamus can disrupt the sleep-wake cycle, leading to excessive sleepiness or changes in sleep patterns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not primarily control sleep regulation. The thalamus is involved in relaying sensory information, the cortex is responsible for higher brain functions, and the medulla controls vital functions such as heartbeat and breathing.
NCLEX-PN management of care practice questions, set 5 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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