NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questions, set 9
NCLEX-PN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questionsset 9
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, what precaution should the nurse take?
A. Infuse hypertonic solutions cautiously.
B. Mix no more than 60 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid.
C. Prevent infiltration of calcium, which causes tissue necrosis and sloughing.
D. Monitor the client's digitalis dosage for adjustments due to IV calcium.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Prevent infiltration of calcium, which causes tissue necrosis and sloughing.
When administering intravenous electrolyte solutions, preventing the infiltration of calcium is crucial to avoid tissue necrosis and sloughing, making choice C the correct answer. Choice A is revised to 'Infuse hypertonic solutions cautiously' because hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is corrected to 'Mix no more than 60 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid' as exceeding this limit can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is modified to 'Monitor the client's digitalis dosage for adjustments due to IV calcium' as it is essential to monitor the digitalis dosage for potential adjustments when IV calcium is administered; however, this choice is incorrect here as it inaccurately suggests adjusting the digitalis dosage due to IV calcium, which could lead to harmful effects.
Question 2
Upon admission, the client expresses a desire for an extra oxygen tank in their room due to a previous breathing issue. What is the most appropriate response?
A. "I will make sure there is always an extra oxygen tank in your room."?
B. "I will ask the previous nurse if the extra tank was needed."?
C. "I will need to check if your insurance benefits would cover an additional oxygen tank."?
D. "The first priority is ensuring there are enough oxygen tanks for everyone who needs them. I am not sure we will be able to provide an extra on standby."?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — "The first priority is ensuring there are enough oxygen tanks for everyone who needs them. I am not sure we will be able to provide an extra on standby."?
The appropriate response in this situation is to prioritize the availability of oxygen tanks for all patients in need. While it is understandable that the client may desire an extra tank for reassurance, the healthcare facility must ensure equitable distribution based on clinical need. Option A is incorrect because promising an always available extra tank may not be feasible and can set unrealistic expectations. Option B is not the best response as it focuses on past actions rather than addressing the current situation. Option C is not the most appropriate response at this time as the client's immediate need for an extra oxygen tank is the primary concern. Therefore, the best response is to emphasize the importance of equitable distribution of resources while acknowledging the client's request for an extra tank.
Question 3
A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?
A. primary prevention
B. secondary prevention
C. tertiary prevention
D. health promotion
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — secondary prevention
The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.
Question 4
A 26-year-old single woman is knocked down and robbed while walking her dog one evening. Three months later, she presents at the crisis clinic, stating that she cannot put this experience out of her mind. She complains of nightmares, extreme fear of being outside or alone, and difficulty eating and sleeping. What is the best response by the nurse?
A. "I will ask the physician to prescribe medication for you."?
B. "That must have been a very difficult and frightening experience. It might be helpful to talk about it."?
C. "In the future, you might walk your dog in a more populated area or hire someone else to take over this task."?
D. "Have you thought of moving to a safer neighborhood?"?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — "That must have been a very difficult and frightening experience. It might be helpful to talk about it."?
Choice B is the best response as it provides empathy and encourages the client to talk about her experience, which can be therapeutic. This approach validates the client's feelings and offers support. By acknowledging the difficulty and fear experienced by the client, the nurse opens the door for the client to express her emotions and begin the process of coping with the trauma. Choices A, C, and D do not address the emotional impact of the traumatic event or provide an opportunity for the client to express her feelings and concerns. Choice A immediately jumps to medication without exploring other supportive interventions. Choice C focuses on practical solutions without addressing the client's emotional needs. Choice D suggests a drastic solution without considering the client's emotional state or preferences.
Question 5
What are appropriate nursing strategies to assist a client in maintaining a sense of self?
A. Addressing the client by their first name when interacting with them
B. Treating the client with dignity
C. Explaining procedures to the client regardless of their attentiveness
D. Encouraging the use of personal items to foster a sense of identity
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Treating the client with dignity
Maintaining a sense of self is crucial for clients in healthcare settings. Treating the client with dignity is a fundamental nursing principle that helps preserve the client's self-worth and identity. Addressing the client by their first name when interacting with them is a way to show respect, but it alone may not significantly contribute to maintaining their sense of self. Explaining procedures to the client, regardless of their attentiveness, is essential for informed consent and autonomy, empowering them in their care. Encouraging the use of personal items can foster a sense of identity as these items often hold personal significance and emotional value for the client, thus supporting their sense of self; therefore, discouraging their use would be counterproductive in maintaining a client's sense of self.
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Question 6
Which information should be reported to the state Board of Nursing?
A. The facility fails to provide literature in both Spanish and English.
B. The narcotic count has been incorrect on the unit for the past 3 days.
C. The client fails to receive an itemized account of his bills and services received during his hospital stay.
D. The nursing assistant assigned to the client with hepatitis fails to feed the client and give the bath.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'The narcotic count has been incorrect on the unit for the past 3 days.' This information should be reported to the state Board of Nursing as it involves medication errors and potential drug diversion, which are serious issues that fall under the jurisdiction of the Board. Reporting medication discrepancies and errors in narcotic counts is crucial for patient safety and regulatory compliance. Choices A, C, and D involve different types of issues that are not within the direct purview of the Board of Nursing. Providing literature in multiple languages (Choice A), addressing billing practices (Choice C), and resolving staff performance issues (Choice D) should be handled internally or reported to the appropriate departments or authorities, such as the Joint Commission or the charge nurse.
What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?
A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
D. Emphasize client education.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.
The nurse is caring for a dying client who has persistently requested that the nurse 'help her to die and be in peace.' According to the Code of Ethics for Nurses, the nurse should:
A. Ask the client if she has signed an advance directives document.
B. Tell the client that another nurse will be assigned to care for her.
C. Instruct the client that only a physician can legally assist in suicide.
D. Try to make the client as comfortable as possible, but refuse to assist in death.
Correct answer:
According to the Code of Ethics for Nurses, the nurse should try to make the client as comfortable as possible but refuse to assist in death. It is not within the scope of nursing practice to assist in death, even if requested by the client. Choice A is incorrect as advance directives do not directly relate to the client's request for assistance in dying. Choice B is inappropriate as passing the responsibility to another nurse does not address the ethical dilemma at hand. Choice C is incorrect because instructing the client that only a physician can legally assist in suicide does not address the ethical considerations involved in the request. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the nurse is to provide comfort measures while upholding ethical standards and not participating in ending the client's life.
How does the ANA define the psychiatric nursing role?
A. a specialized area of nursing practice that employs theories of human behavior as its science and the powerful use of self as its art
B. assisting the therapist to relieve the symptoms of clients
C. to solve clients' problems and give them the answers
D. having a client committed to long-term therapy with the nurse
Correct answer:
The correct answer aligns with the ANA's definition of the psychiatric nursing role. According to the ANA, psychiatric nursing is a specialized area of nursing practice that incorporates theories of human behavior as its foundational science and utilizes the self as its essential art. This definition emphasizes the importance of understanding human behavior and leveraging therapeutic communication and relationships to provide effective care for individuals with mental health concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the ANA-defined role of psychiatric nursing. Psychiatric nurses primarily focus on delivering holistic care, promoting mental health, and supporting individuals with mental health challenges using evidence-based practices and therapeutic interventions.
A client with Kawasaki disease has bilateral congestion of the conjunctivae, dry cracked lips, a strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet followed by desquamation of fingers and toes. Which of the following nursing measures is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image?
A. administering immune globulin intravenously
B. assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours
C. explaining progression of the disease to the client and their family
D. assessing heart sounds and rhythm
Correct answer:
Explaining the progression of the disease to the client and their family is the most appropriate nursing measure to promote a positive body image. By educating them about when symptoms are expected to improve and resolve, they can understand that there will be no permanent disruption in physical appearance that could negatively impact body image. While administering immune globulin intravenously may be part of the treatment for Kawasaki disease, it does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours is important for monitoring the disease but does not directly impact body image. Assessing heart sounds and rhythm is crucial for monitoring cardiac effects of Kawasaki disease but is not directly related to promoting a positive body image.
A nurse in a day-care setting is planning play activities for 2- and 3-year-old children. Which toys are most appropriate for these activities?
A. Finger paints and card games
B. Blocks and push-pull toys
C. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys
D. Simple board games and puzzles
Correct answer:
The most appropriate toys for 2- and 3-year-old children in a day-care setting are blocks and push-pull toys. Toddlers enjoy objects of different textures like clay, sand, finger paints, and bubbles, as well as push-pull toys, large balls, and sand and water play. They also like activities such as blocks, painting, coloring with large crayons, large puzzles, and playing with trucks or dolls. Finger paints and card games may be more suitable for older children. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys are generally more appropriate for preschoolers. Blocks and push-pull toys are beneficial for young children as they help in developing fine motor skills, hand-eye coordination, spatial awareness, and creativity. These toys also encourage imaginative play and problem-solving, making them ideal choices for toddlers.
A mother who has never breastfed a child before is having trouble getting the baby to latch on to the breast. The baby has lost 3% of its birth weight within the first 2 days of life. The best statement is:
A. The baby will eventually take to the breast.
B. I can prepare a bottle if you want to try that.
C. A small amount of weight loss in the first few days is normal.
D. I can arrange for the charge nurse to come and talk to you about breastfeeding.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'A small amount of weight loss in the first few days is normal.' It is important to reassure the mother that a small amount of weight loss, such as 5-10% of birth weight, in the first few days of life is considered normal for newborns. This reassurance helps alleviate the mother's concerns. Option A is incorrect because it does not address the concern about weight loss; it focuses more on the baby eventually latching on. Option B is not recommended as the first solution for breastfeeding issues, as introducing a bottle early on may lead to nipple confusion. Option D involves escalating the situation to the charge nurse when it can be addressed by providing appropriate information and support directly, making it less necessary in this scenario where reassurance and education are key.
The client is preparing to learn about the effects of isoniazid (INH). Which information is essential for the client to understand?
A. Isoniazid should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
B. Prolonged use of isoniazid may result in dark, concentrated urine.
C. Taking aluminum hydroxide (Maalox) with isoniazid can enhance the drug's effects.
D. Consuming alcohol daily can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis.
Correct answer:
It is crucial for the client to understand that consuming alcohol while on isoniazid can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Hepatic damage can lead to dark, concentrated urine. To minimize gastrointestinal upset, it is recommended to take isoniazid with meals rather than on an empty stomach. Additionally, the client should avoid taking aluminum-containing antacids like aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid, as it can reduce the drug's effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because isoniazid should not be taken on an empty stomach to help reduce GI upset. Choice B is incorrect, as prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark, concentrated urine. Choice C is incorrect as taking aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid does not enhance the drug's effects; in fact, it may decrease its effectiveness.
For a client requiring total oral care, it is important for the nurse to:
A. assemble all equipment, assist the client to a semi-Fowler's position, and place a towel on his chest.
B. place the client in Fowler's position, prepare the equipment, and instruct the client what to do.
C. assemble all equipment, place the client in a side-lying position, and place a towel under his chin.
D. use gloves and clean the client's mouth, including the tongue.
Correct answer:
To provide total oral care to a client, the nurse should first assemble all necessary equipment. Placing the client in a side-lying position helps fluids to easily flow out or pool in the side of the mouth for suctioning, thus preventing aspiration. Additionally, placing a towel under the client's chin and a curved basin against the chin helps to maintain cleanliness during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect because the client should be placed in a side-lying position, not a semi-Fowler's position which is used for respiratory issues. Choice B is incorrect as it does not emphasize the importance of proper positioning for effective oral care. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the procedure by focusing only on cleaning the mouth without considering the importance of positioning and preparation.
A client with Kawasaki disease has bilateral congestion of the conjunctivae, dry cracked lips, a strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet followed by desquamation of fingers and toes. Which of the following nursing measures is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image?
A. administering immune globulin intravenously
B. assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours
C. explaining progression of the disease to the client and their family
D. assessing heart sounds and rhythm
Correct answer:
Educating the client and their family about the progression of Kawasaki disease is crucial for promoting a positive body image. By explaining when symptoms are expected to improve and resolve, the client and family can better understand that there will be no permanent disruption in physical appearance that could negatively impact body image. Administering immune globulin intravenously is a treatment for Kawasaki disease but does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours is important for monitoring the disease but does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing heart sounds and rhythm is essential for evaluating cardiac effects of Kawasaki disease but is not the most direct measure for promoting a positive body image.
NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questions, set 9 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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