NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questions, set 7
NCLEX-PN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questionsset 7
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Nurse Ann tells nurse Christine that one of her client's status is declining but that she will do her best to juggle her other two clients. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Nurse Christine should offer to give medications to Nurse Ann's other two clients.
B. Nurse Christine should inform their supervisor that assignments may need to be changed.
C. Nurse Christine should ask other nurses who might be able to help Nurse Ann.
D. Nurse Ann should try not to burden other nurses and continue caring for her assigned clients.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Nurse Christine should inform their supervisor that assignments may need to be changed.
In this situation, when Nurse Ann informs Nurse Christine that a client's status is declining and she needs to attend to them, the most appropriate action for Nurse Christine is to inform their supervisor that assignments may need to be changed. By informing the supervisor, necessary adjustments can be made to ensure proper care for all clients. Offering to give medications to Nurse Ann's other two clients (choice A) may not address the underlying issue of a declining client and could lead to a delay in care. Asking other nurses for help (choice C) might not be the most efficient solution, as the supervisor is responsible for reassigning tasks. Nurse Ann continuing to care for all her assigned clients (choice D) may compromise the quality of care provided to the declining client and may spread her too thin, impacting all clients negatively.
Question 2
A nurse helps a young adult conduct a personal lifestyle assessment. The nurse carefully reviews the assessment with the young adult for which reason?
A. Young adults may ignore physical symptoms and postpone seeking health care
B. Young adults are unable to afford health insurance
C. Young adults are at risk for a serious illness
D. Young adults are exposed to hazardous substances
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Young adults may ignore physical symptoms and postpone seeking health care
The corrected answer is A: Young adults may ignore physical symptoms and postpone seeking health care. Young adults are usually quite active, experience severe illnesses less commonly than members of older age groups, tend to ignore physical symptoms, and often postpone seeking health care. Clients in this developmental stage may benefit from a personal lifestyle assessment to identify habits that increase the risk for various chronic diseases. Choice B is incorrect because the ability to afford health insurance is not the primary reason for conducting a personal lifestyle assessment. Choice C is incorrect because young adults are not inherently at higher risk for serious illness compared to other age groups. Choice D is incorrect because exposure to hazardous substances is not the main focus when conducting a personal lifestyle assessment.
Question 3
In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?
A. ability to speak
B. ability to hear
C. oxygen saturation
D. adventitious breath sounds
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — ability to speak
In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.
Question 4
Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?
A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.
The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
Question 5
In a community hospital, a nurse is employed as a staff nurse and is supervised by a nurse manager. The nurse understands that in this position, the term authority most appropriately refers to which description?
A. Accepting responsibility for the actions of others
B. The official power to ensure that an organizational decision is enforced
C. Bearing the legal responsibility for others' performance of tasks
D. Taking responsibility for what staff members do
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The official power to ensure that an organizational decision is enforced
The term authority refers to the official power of an individual to approve or command an action or to ensure that a decision is enforced. In the context of the nurse's position supervised by a nurse manager, having authority means having the official power to ensure that organizational decisions are carried out. Choice A, accepting responsibility for the actions of others, is more related to accountability rather than authority. Choice C, bearing the legal responsibility for others' performance of tasks, is more about legal liability rather than authority. Choice D, taking responsibility for what staff members do, is similar to choice A and is more about accountability rather than having the official power to enforce decisions. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it directly relates to the concept of authority in the context described.
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Question 6
Several passengers aboard an airliner suddenly become weak and suffer breathing difficulty. The diagnosis is likely to be
A. Outbreak of Asian flu.
B. Chemical exposure.
C. Bacterial pneumonia.
D. Allergic reaction.
Correct answer:
In the scenario described, where multiple passengers on an airliner experience sudden weakness and breathing difficulty simultaneously, the most likely cause is chemical exposure. This is because a sudden onset of similar symptoms in a group of individuals suggests a common environmental factor affecting them. Options A, C, and D are less likely as they do not explain a sudden onset of symptoms in multiple individuals simultaneously. Asian flu (Option A) is a viral infection and would not typically result in sudden symptoms in multiple individuals at the same time. Bacterial pneumonia (Option C) is a localized infection and not a probable cause for a sudden onset of symptoms in a group. An allergic reaction (Option D) would usually occur in individuals with specific allergies rather than affecting a group of passengers at the same time.
A client admitted to the hospital has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order in his medical record. The nurse understands which information about DNR orders?
A. The only individuals who may change the DNR order are healthcare providers
B. The DNR order can be changed if the client's condition warrants it
C. The DNR order does not remain fixed for the duration of the client's hospitalization
D. The DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is that the DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. If the client's condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client's hospitalization. The client's request regarding DNR status is the priority. Choice A is incorrect because healthcare providers, not just immediate family members, may change the DNR order based on the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect as DNR orders can be changed if the client's condition warrants it, not remaining unchanged. Choice C is incorrect as DNR orders are not fixed for the duration of hospitalization, they can be modified based on the client's needs.
The teaching plan for a postpartum client who is about to be discharged should include which of the following instructions?
A. "It is normal for your breasts to be tender. You should call the physician if you also have redness and fatigue."?
B. "Because your baby was delivered vaginally, you might have to urinate more frequently."?
C. "It is normal to run a low-grade temperature for a few days. If it is higher than 100°F, call your physician."?
D. "Be sure to call your physician if your vaginal discharge becomes bright red."?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is to instruct the postpartum client to call the physician if their vaginal discharge becomes bright red. The vaginal discharge after birth is called lochia, and a return to red or containing clots could indicate impending hemorrhage or infection, necessitating notification of the physician.
Choice A is incorrect because although some tenderness may be expected, redness and fatigue are clinical manifestations of mastitis, not normal postpartum changes. Choice B is also incorrect as increased frequency of urination after vaginal delivery could indicate a urinary tract infection, not a normal postpartum change. Choice C is incorrect because running a low-grade temperature for a few days is not expected postpartum; an elevated temperature above 100°F should be reported to the physician as it could indicate infection.
Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?
A. metastatic liver cancer
B. gram-negative septicemia
C. pernicious anemia
D. iron-deficiency anemia
Correct answer:
Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding. Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to faulty absorption from the gastrointestinal tract. While pernicious anemia can lead to other health issues, bleeding tendencies are not a primary concern. Metastatic liver cancer (choice A) can cause liver dysfunction leading to decreased synthesis of clotting factors, increasing the risk of bleeding. Gram-negative septicemia (choice B) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causing excessive bleeding. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice D) can result in microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, which can impair oxygen transport and lead to tissue hypoxia, but it is not directly associated with a significant potential for bleeding.
Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?
A. Transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection.
B. Exclude raw vegetables from the diet.
C. Avoid administering rectal suppositories.
D. Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client's room.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is to transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection. Granulocyte transfusion is not routinely indicated to prevent infection in neutropenic clients. While neutrophils are essential in fighting infections and are beneficial in selected populations of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients who do not respond to antibiotics and are expected to experience prolonged suppression of granulocyte production, routine granulocyte transfusion is not recommended. Choices B, C, and D are appropriate interventions for a severely neutropenic client. Prohibiting fresh flowers and plants helps reduce the risk of exposure to environmental pathogens. Avoiding rectal suppositories minimizes the risk of introducing harmful bacteria. Excluding raw vegetables from the diet reduces the likelihood of foodborne infections.
A client is admitted to telemetry with a diagnosis of diabetes at 3pm. At 10pm, the client is unresponsive. BP is 98/64, Resp 38, HR 100, T 97. The nurse notes a fruity smell on the client's breath. The nurse recognizes that the client is in which acid-base imbalance?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer:
Based on the client's unresponsiveness, fruity breath smell, and the presence of diabetes, the nurse can infer that the client is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is a complication of diabetes characterized by the accumulation of ketones in the body, leading to metabolic acidosis. The fruity breath smell is due to the presence of ketones. Therefore, the correct acid-base imbalance in this scenario is metabolic acidosis. Choice A, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect because the scenario does not provide evidence of primary respiratory dysfunction. Choice B, respiratory alkalosis, is incorrect as the client's condition does not align with the typical causes and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis. Choice D, metabolic alkalosis, is incorrect as the symptoms and history provided do not suggest a state of metabolic alkalosis.
A health care provider informs a nurse that the husband of an unconscious client with terminal cancer will not grant permission for a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The health care provider tells the nurse to perform a 'slow code' and let the client 'rest in peace' if she stops breathing. How should the nurse respond?
A. Telling the health care provider that the client would probably want to die in peace
B. Telling the health care provider that if the client stops breathing, the health care provider will be called before any other actions are taken
C. Telling the health care provider that all of the nurses on the unit agree with this plan
D. Telling the health care provider that 'slow codes' are not acceptable
Correct answer:
The nurse may not violate a family's request regarding the client's treatment plan. A 'slow code' is not acceptable, and the nurse should state this to the health care provider. The definition of a 'slow code' varies among health care facilities and personnel and could be interpreted as not performing resuscitative procedures as quickly as a competent person would. Resuscitative procedures that are performed more slowly than recommended by the American Heart Association are below the standard of care and could therefore serve as the basis for a lawsuit. The other options are inappropriate: Option A is speculative and does not address the issue directly; Option B does not challenge the unethical practice of a 'slow code'; Option C is irrelevant and does not address the ethical concerns raised by the health care provider's request.
The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?
A. Assessment of the client's level of anxiety
B. Evaluation of the client's exercise tolerance
C. Identification of peripheral pulses
D. Assessment of bowel sounds and activity
Correct answer:
The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm is the identification of peripheral pulses. This is essential because during surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Monitoring peripheral pulses helps assess circulation to the lower extremities, ensuring adequate perfusion. While assessing the client's anxiety level (choice A) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring peripheral pulses in this case. Evaluating exercise tolerance (choice B) is not typically recommended preoperatively for this specific condition. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (choice D) is also relevant but takes a lower priority compared to identifying peripheral pulses in this scenario.
A client is 2 days post-operative colon resection. After a coughing episode, the client's wound eviscerates. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Reinsert the protruding organ and cover with 4x4s
B. Cover the wound with a sterile 4x4 and ABD dressing
C. Cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing
D. Apply an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound
Correct answer:
In the scenario where a client's wound eviscerates, the most appropriate nursing action is to cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing. Reinserting the protruding organ, as mentioned in choice A, is incorrect because it can lead to further complications requiring the client to return to surgery. Choice B, covering the wound with a sterile 4x4 and ABD dressing, is not ideal as it may not provide adequate protection and moisture for the exposed tissue. Choice D, applying an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound, is inappropriate as it does not address the specific needs of wound evisceration. Covering the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing helps maintain a moist environment, protects the exposed tissue, and prevents infection, promoting optimal wound healing and reducing the risk of complications.
Which situation is an example of the use of evidence-based practice in the delivery of client care?
A. Encouraging a client who has had a stroke to consume thickened liquids and soft foods
B. Picking up a dislodged radiation implant with long-handled forceps and placing it in a lead container to minimize radiation exposure
C. Pouring 1 to 2 mL of sterile solution that will be used for wound cleansing into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before pouring the solution into a sterile basin
D. Blowing on a fingerstick site to dry it after cleaning the site with an alcohol swab
Correct answer:
Evidence-based practice is an approach that integrates client preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Pouring sterile solution into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before using it for wound cleansing reflects evidence-based practice by preventing the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. Option A is incorrect because encouraging a stroke client to consume thickened liquids and soft foods is appropriate, not thin liquids and foods that pose a choking risk. Option B is incorrect as picking up a radiation implant with long-handled forceps to minimize radiation exposure is a safety measure, not evidence-based practice. Option D is incorrect because blowing on a fingerstick site after cleaning can recontaminate the site, which goes against best practices in infection control.
NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questions, set 7 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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