NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questions, set 47
NCLEX-PN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questionsset 47
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?
A. 2 liters/minute
B. 4 liters/minute
C. 6 liters/minute
D. 8 liters/minute
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — 6 liters/minute
The correct answer is 6 liters/minute. When a client requires oxygen therapy, the maximum flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula is 6 liters/minute. Nasal cannula can effectively deliver oxygen up to 6 liters/minute. Flow rates exceeding 6 liters/minute may lead to drying of the nasal passages and discomfort for the client. Higher flow rates, like 8 liters/minute, should be administered using a mask to ensure sufficient oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they indicate flow rates that surpass the recommended maximum for nasal cannula delivery.
Question 2
The women's health charge nurse is making assignments for the next shift. The unit is short one staff member and will receive a nurse from the medical-surgical unit. Which group of clients should she assign to the medical-surgical nurse?
A. Total abdominal hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, client with breast reduction
B. C-section planning discharge, post-partum infection, mastectomy
C. Vaginal delivery of fetal demise, C-section with pneumonia, 32-week gestation with lymphoma
D. 28-week gestation of bed rest, post-partum with HELLP syndrome, breast reconstruction
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Total abdominal hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, client with breast reduction
The correct answer includes clients who have undergone surgical procedures typically managed on a medical-surgical unit. Choice A consists of clients who have had elective surgical procedures such as hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, and breast reduction, which are commonly treated in a medical-surgical setting. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with various complications related to childbirth, fetal demise, pneumonia, gestational lymphoma, HELLP syndrome, and bed rest, which are more complex cases requiring specialized care beyond medical-surgical nursing.
Question 3
In which age group does the highest incidence of child abuse occur?
A. Birth-3 years old
B. 4-6 years old
C. 6-10 years old
D. More than 10 years old
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Birth-3 years old
The correct answer is 'Birth-3 years old.' Children between birth and 3 years of age have the highest rates of victimization (at 16 per 1,000 children). This age group is most vulnerable due to their dependency and inability to report or protect themselves effectively. Child abuse can occur at any age, but statistics show that infants and toddlers are at the highest risk due to their developmental stage and reliance on caregivers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while child abuse can happen at any age, the prevalence is highest among children in the 0-3 age group.
Question 4
A nurse is preparing to auscultate a fetal heart rate (FHR). The nurse performs the Leopold maneuvers to determine the position of the fetus and then places the fetoscope over which part of the fetus?
A. Back of the fetus
B. Carotid artery in the neck of the fetus
C. Brachial area of one extremity of the fetus
D. Chest of the fetus
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Back of the fetus
The nurse would use the Leopold maneuvers to identify the position of the fetus and determine the location of the fetal back. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is most easily heard through the fetal back because it usually lies closest to the surface of the maternal abdomen. Auscultation of the FHR over the chest, carotid artery, or brachial area is not possible due to the fetal position within the maternal abdomen. Placing the fetoscope over the carotid artery or brachial area would not yield the fetal heart rate, and the chest area is not typically used for auscultating the FHR.
Question 5
After talking to the nurse, the charge nurse should:
A. Report the incident to the Board of Nursing
B. File a formal reprimand
C. Terminate the nurse
D. Charge the nurse with a tort
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — File a formal reprimand
The appropriate action after discussing the problem with the nurse is to document the incident and file a formal reprimand. Reporting to the Board of Nursing may be necessary if the behavior persists or harm occurs to the client, but it is not the initial step. Termination should be considered if the issue continues despite warnings. Charging the nurse with a tort is not a suitable course of action in this situation as a tort refers to a wrongful act against a client or their belongings, not an appropriate disciplinary measure. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
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Question 6
The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?
A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice
B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine
C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night
D. Telling the client to take the medication if night sweats occur
Correct answer:
The correct answer is telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine. Rifampin can change the color of the urine and body fluid. Teaching the client about these changes is important as the client might think this is a complication. Answer A is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take rifampin with juice. Answer C is incorrect because rifampin should be taken at consistent times, not necessarily before going to bed. Answer D is incorrect as rifampin should be taken regularly as prescribed, not based on symptoms like night sweats.
A nurse is reviewing the notes written by a nurse on a previous shift. Which note in the client's record reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation?
A. The client's wound is healing well.
B. The client seems anxious.
C. The client's intake was 360 mL
D. The client is voiding large amounts
Correct answer:
Quality documentation and reporting require information to be factual, accurate, complete, current, and organized. Choice C, 'The client's intake was 360 mL,' reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation as it provides a specific and measurable observation. This note meets the criteria for quality documentation by being specific and quantifiable. Choices A, B, and D lack specificity and quantifiability. Choice A includes a subjective term 'well,' choice B uses 'seems' indicating uncertainty, and choice D uses a vague term 'large' without quantifying the amount.
After a client undergoes a left lower lobe lung resection for lung cancer, which post-operative measure would typically be included in the plan?
A. Closed chest drainage
B. A tracheostomy
C. A mediastinal tube
D. Percussion vibration and drainage
Correct answer:
After a lung resection, such as the removal of the left lower lobe for lung cancer, closed chest drainage is a common post-operative measure to help drain any excess air or fluid from the chest cavity. A tracheostomy is not typically needed for this procedure, so choice B is incorrect. Similarly, a mediastinal tube is not routinely inserted following a left lower lobe lung resection, making choice C incorrect. Percussion vibration and drainage are not indicated for this type of surgery, so choice D is also incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is closed chest drainage.
A mother of a newborn notices a nurse placing liquid in her baby's eyes. Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about the need for eyedrops following birth?
A. Eyedrops following birth help reduce the risk of eye infection.
B. Eyedrops are required by law.
C. Eyedrops will keep the eye moist.
D. Eyedrops are required by law every 6 hours following birth.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'Eyedrops are required by law every 6 hours following birth.' This statement is inaccurate because while laws do require the placement of eyedrops, physicians indicate a specific timeframe for their administration. Choice A is correct because eyedrops following birth do help reduce the risk of eye infection by preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that eyedrops are mandated solely by law, without considering medical reasons. Choice C is accurate as eyedrops do help keep the eye moist, preventing dryness and discomfort.
Is head lag expected to be resolved by 4 months of age? Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate?
A. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension.
B. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps.
C. Drowsiness, lethargy, and fatigue.
D. Neuropathy and tingling in the extremities.
Correct answer:
Head lag is a developmental milestone that should be resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate potential developmental delays or muscle weakness. The correct answer, 'Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps,' reflects symptoms that could be associated with developmental delays or underlying health conditions. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension (Choice A) are unlikely to be directly related to head lag. Choices C and D present symptoms that are unrelated to the issue of continued head lag at 6 months of age.
Which action by the novice nurse indicates a need for further teaching?
A. The nurse fails to wear gloves when removing a dressing.
B. The nurse applies an oxygen saturation monitor to the earlobe.
C. The nurse elevates the head of the bed to check blood pressure.
D. The nurse places the extremity in a dependent position to acquire a peripheral blood sample.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. The novice nurse failing to wear gloves when removing a dressing indicates a need for further teaching to emphasize infection control practices. This action can lead to the spread of infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they demonstrate proper nursing skills and techniques. Applying an oxygen saturation monitor to the earlobe, elevating the head of the bed to check blood pressure, and placing the extremity in a dependent position to acquire a peripheral blood sample all reflect understanding of correct procedures in patient care.
The client is admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Blood gases reveal pH 7.36, CO2 45, O2 84, HCO3 28. The nurse would assess the client to be in:
A. Uncompensated acidosis
B. Compensated alkalosis
C. Compensated respiratory acidosis
D. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
Correct answer:
The client is experiencing compensated respiratory acidosis. The pH is within the normal range but is lower than 7.40, indicating acidity. The elevated CO2 level and low O2 level suggest respiratory involvement. The slightly elevated HCO3 level indicates a compensatory mechanism. In respiratory acidosis, the pH will be inversely related to the CO2 and bicarb levels, with elevated CO2 and HCO3 levels contributing to acidosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the presented blood gas values and the compensatory response observed in this case.
After undergoing gastric resection, which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?
A. a high-protein meal
B. a high-fat meal
C. a large meal regardless of nutrient content
D. a high-carbohydrate meal
Correct answer:
After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. In contrast, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. While a large meal can slow down gastric emptying, the specific nutrient content, such as high carbohydrates, plays a significant role in promoting rapid emptying. Therefore, a high-carbohydrate meal is the correct choice as it is most likely to lead to rapid gastric emptying compared to the other options.
Which deficiency in the mother has been primarily associated with neural tube defects in the fetus?
A. Iron
B. Folic acid
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin E
Correct answer:
Folic acid deficiency in the mother has been primarily associated with neural tube defects in the fetus. Folic acid is crucial for the development of the neural tube in the early stages of pregnancy. Its deficiency can lead to neural tube defects, such as spina bifida or anencephaly. Iron deficiency is not directly related to neural tube defects but can cause other complications in pregnancy. Vitamin B12 is important for neurological function but is not the primary cause of neural tube defects. Vitamin E deficiency is not associated with neural tube defects in the fetus.
The test used to differentiate sickle cell trait from sickle cell disease is:
A. Sickle cell preparation.
B. Peripheral smear.
C. Sickledex.
D. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Correct answer:
The correct test to differentiate between sickle cell trait and sickle cell disease is hemoglobin electrophoresis. This test separates different types of hemoglobin based on their electrical charge, allowing for the identification of specific hemoglobin variants like HbS in sickle cell disease. Sickle cell preparation and Sickledex are not specific tests for this differentiation. While a peripheral smear can show sickle cells, it does not provide a definitive differentiation between the trait and the disease as it doesn't identify the specific hemoglobin variant present.
NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questions, set 47 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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