NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questions, set 41
NCLEX-PN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questionsset 41
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A 24-year-old female client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. What is the primary responsibility of the nurse?
A. Taking the vital signs
B. Obtaining the permit
C. Explaining the procedure
D. Checking the lab work
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Taking the vital signs
The primary responsibility of the nurse is to take the vital signs before any surgery. This action helps assess the client's baseline condition and identify any abnormalities that need addressing before the procedure. Obtaining the permit (choice B) is typically handled by administrative staff, explaining the procedure (choice C) is usually done by the healthcare provider performing the surgery, and checking the lab work (choice D) is often part of the pre-operative assessment conducted by the healthcare provider. Therefore, in this context, these actions are not the primary responsibility of the nurse.
Question 2
What is the next step for a 64-year-old male diagnosed with COPD and CHF who shows a 10 lbs increase in total body weight over the last few days?
A. Contact the patient's physician immediately.
B. Check the intake and output on the patient's flow sheet.
C. Encourage the patient to ambulate to reduce lower extremity edema.
D. Check the patient's vitals every 2 hours.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Check the intake and output on the patient's flow sheet.
In a patient with COPD and CHF experiencing a sudden increase in total body weight, the priority is to check the intake and output on the patient's flow sheet to evaluate fluid balance. This assessment helps determine if the weight gain is due to fluid retention, which can exacerbate CHF. Contacting the physician may be necessary based on the intake and output findings. While encouraging ambulation is beneficial for circulation, it may not address the root cause of fluid retention. Checking vitals every 2 hours is important for monitoring stability but may not pinpoint the reason behind the weight gain.
Question 3
Which of the following roommates would be most suitable for the client with myasthenia gravis?
A. A client with hypothyroidism
B. A client with Crohn's disease
C. A client with pyelonephritis
D. A client with bronchitis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — A client with hypothyroidism
The most suitable roommate for the client with myasthenia gravis is the client with hypothyroidism because they are quiet. A client with Crohn's disease (choice B) would be up to the bathroom frequently due to gastrointestinal issues, which could disturb the roommate with myasthenia gravis. A client with pyelonephritis (choice C) suffering from a kidney infection will need to urinate frequently, causing disturbances. A client with bronchitis (choice D) will be coughing, potentially disrupting the rest and quiet environment needed by a roommate with myasthenia gravis to manage their symptoms effectively.
Question 4
What is a predisposing factor for cancer of the tongue?
A. tobacco use
B. obesity
C. sun exposure
D. eating sweets
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — tobacco use
Tobacco use is a well-established predisposing factor for cancer of the tongue. Smoking or chewing tobacco can lead to the development of oral cancers, including those affecting the tongue. Obesity, sun exposure, and eating sweets are not directly linked to an increased risk of tongue cancer. Obesity may be associated with other types of cancer, sun exposure can lead to skin cancer, and eating sweets is not a known risk factor for tongue cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is tobacco use, as it has a strong association with the development of tongue cancer, making it a significant predisposing factor.
Question 5
The goals of palliative care include all of the following except:
A. giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible
B. taking care of the whole person"?body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul
C. no interventions are needed because the client is near death
D. supporting the needs of the family and client
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — no interventions are needed because the client is near death
The goals of palliative care include choices A, B, and D. Choice C, 'no interventions are needed because the client is near death,' is not part of palliative care. Palliative care involves giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible, taking care of the whole person"?body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul, and supporting the needs of the family and client. Interventions are crucial in palliative care to ensure the comfort and well-being of the client until the end of life. Therefore, the correct answer is that no interventions are needed because the client is near death.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
The nurse is assessing the dental status of an 18-month-old child. How many teeth should the nurse expect to examine?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Correct answer:
An 18-month-old child should have approximately 12 teeth. In general, children begin dentition around 6 months of age. During the first 2 years of life, a quick guide to the number of teeth a child should have is as follows: Subtract the number 6 from the number of months in the age of the child. In this example, the child is 18 months old, so the formula is 18 - 6 = 12. The correct answer is 12. Choice A (6) is incorrect as it does not consider the child's age. Choices B (8) and D (16) are incorrect as they do not align with the dental development timeline and the specific age of the child in question.
The nurse teaching about preventable diseases should emphasize the importance of getting the following vaccines:
A. human papillomavirus, genital herpes, measles.
B. pneumonia, HIV, mumps.
C. syphilis, gonorrhea, pneumonia.
D. polio, pertussis, measles.
Correct answer:
Vaccines are one of the most effective methods of preventing and controlling certain communicable diseases. The smallpox vaccine is not currently in use because the smallpox virus has been declared eradicated from the world's population. Diseases such as polio, diphtheria, pertussis, and measles are mostly controlled by routine childhood immunization. They have not, however, been eradicated, so children need to be immunized against these diseases. Choices A, B, and C contain vaccines that do not protect against preventable diseases like polio, pertussis, and measles. Therefore, the correct choice is D.
B. limited distribution of the drug to receptor sites
C. less availability to produce desired medicinal effects
D. decreased metabolism of the drug by the liver
Correct answer:
Medication bound to protein leads to less availability to produce desired medicinal effects because only unbound drugs can interact with active receptor sites. If a drug is bound to protein, it cannot bind with a receptor site, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because binding to protein reduces drug availability. Choice B is incorrect because distribution to receptor sites is ineffective if the drug is bound to protein. Choice D is incorrect because metabolism does not occur until the drug is removed from the protein molecule by the liver, allowing the protein to return to circulation.
A client has been taking a drug (Drug A) that is highly metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system. He has been on this medication for 6 months. At this time, he is started on a second medication (Drug B) that is an inducer of the cytochrome P-450 system. You should monitor this client for:
A. increased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
B. increased adverse effects of Drug B.
C. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
D. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug B.
Correct answer:
When a client is taking a drug (Drug A) metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system and is then started on another drug (Drug B) that induces this system, the metabolism of Drug A is increased. This results in decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A as it is broken down more rapidly. Monitoring is required to address potential reduced efficacy. The therapeutic effect of Drug A is diminished, not enhanced. Inducing the cytochrome P-450 system does not directly increase the adverse effects of Drug B. Although Drug B is an inducer, its therapeutic effects are not decreased as it is not metabolized faster.
A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
A. increased platelet count
B. increased fibrinogen
C. decreased fibrin split products
D. decreased bleeding
Correct answer:
Effective Heparin therapy should halt the process of intravascular coagulation, leading to increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, an increased fibrinogen level indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy. While increased platelet count and decreased bleeding are positive outcomes, the specific indicator for Heparin therapy response is the increase in fibrinogen level. Decreased fibrin split products would also be a positive response, but an increase in fibrinogen directly reflects the impact of Heparin therapy.
The primary goal of family education is to improve the quality of life. Family education aims to enhance the overall well-being and functioning of both the individual with the condition and their family members. While increased knowledge about mental illness may be a beneficial outcome, it is not the primary objective of family education. Symptom reduction is more commonly associated with psychoeducation rather than family education. Improving caregiving skills is a component of family education, but the primary focus is on improving the quality of life for everyone involved in the caregiving process.
During the change of shift, the oncoming nurse notes a discrepancy in the number of Percocet (Oxycodone) listed and the number present in the narcotic drawer. The nurse's first action should be to:
A. Notify the hospital pharmacist
B. Notify the nursing supervisor
C. Notify the Board of Nursing
D. Notify the director of nursing
Correct answer:
The first action the nurse should take is to report the finding to the nursing supervisor and follow the chain of command. Notifying the nursing supervisor allows for immediate action within the facility to address the discrepancy. If it is found that the pharmacy is in error, then notifying the hospital pharmacist (Choice A) would be appropriate. Choices C and D, notifying the Board of Nursing and the director of nursing, are not the initial steps to take. These options may be necessary if theft is suspected or if the facility's internal response is inadequate. Therefore, they are incorrect answers.
Which dietary consideration is most important for the nurse to teach to a client with hypothyroidism?
A. Increase carbohydrate intake
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Avoid shellfish
D. Increase fiber
Correct answer:
The correct answer is to 'Increase fiber.' In hypothyroidism, clients often experience constipation due to decreased metabolic rate. Increasing fiber in the diet can help alleviate constipation. Choice A, 'Increase carbohydrate intake,' is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase carbohydrate intake in hypothyroidism. Choice B, 'Increase fluid intake,' is not directly related to managing hypothyroidism, although adequate hydration is generally important for overall health. Choice C, 'Avoid shellfish,' is commonly associated with hyperthyroidism due to its iodine content, not hypothyroidism.
Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?
A. anemia
B. edema
C. painless vaginal bleeding
D. fatigue
Correct answer:
Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.
Some drugs are excreted into bile and delivered to the intestines. Prior to elimination from the body, the drug might be absorbed. This process is known as:
A. hepatic clearance.
B. total clearance.
C. enterohepatic cycling.
D. first-pass effect.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'enterohepatic cycling.' This process involves drugs being excreted into bile, delivered to the intestines, reabsorbed into the circulation, and can prolong the drug's presence in the body. 'Hepatic clearance' (Choice A) refers to the amount of drug eliminated by the liver. 'Total clearance' (Choice B) is the sum of all types of clearance including renal, hepatic, and respiratory. 'First-pass effect' (Choice D) is the amount of drug absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized by the liver before entering circulation, reducing the amount of drug available for systemic circulation.
NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questions, set 41 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the NCLEX-PN exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
