NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questions, set 2
NCLEX-PN · clinical judgment
NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questionsset 2
You notice cues, form a hypothesis, act, and evaluate — the same loop Next Generation items reward. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five clinical judgment questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Multiple Drug Use. The nurse should plan care based on knowledge that
A. Multiple drug use is common.
B. People might use more than one drug to enhance the effect or relieve withdrawal symptoms.
C. Combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects.
D. Assessment and intervention are more complex with multiple drug use due to the synergistic effects.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — People might use more than one drug to enhance the effect or relieve withdrawal symptoms.
When caring for a client with Multiple Drug Use, it is important to understand that individuals may use more than one drug simultaneously or sequentially to enhance the effect of a particular drug or to relieve withdrawal symptoms. This practice is common among substance users. For example, heroin users may also consume alcohol, marijuana, or benzodiazepines. Combining drugs can have various effects, such as intensifying intoxication or alleviating withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to recognize that multiple drug use can complicate assessment and intervention due to the diverse effects of different substances on the client's health. Option A is incorrect as multiple drug use is indeed common, not uncommon. Option C is incorrect because combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects. Option D is incorrect because multiple drug use complicates assessment and intervention rather than making them easier, as the effects of different drugs on the client need to be carefully considered.
Question 2
A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with Emphysema about the disease process. Which of the following statements best explains the problems associated with emphysema and could be adapted for use in the nurse's discussion with the client?
A. Hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi caused by an inflammatory response leads to wheezing and tightness in the chest.
B. Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.
C. Vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema cause a chronic cough and sputum production.
D. Chloride is not being transported properly, producing excess absorption of water and sodium, and thick viscous mucus
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.
The correct answer is: 'Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.' Emphysema is a breakdown of the elastin and fiber network of the alveoli where the alveoli enlarge or the walls are destroyed. This alveolar destruction leads to the formation of larger-than-normal air spaces. Emphysema is one of a group of pulmonary diseases of a chronic nature characterized by increased resistance to airflow; the entity is part of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Choice A is incorrect because emphysema is not primarily characterized by hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi causing wheezing and tightness in the chest.
Choice C is incorrect because vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema are not the primary mechanisms involved in emphysema, and they do not directly lead to chronic cough and sputum production.
Choice D is incorrect because emphysema is not related to chloride transport issues and thick viscous mucus production.
Question 3
The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.
B. When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
C. When using formula concentrate, mix one part concentrate and two parts water.
D. If a portion of one bottle is left for the next feeding, discard it.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is crucial to be cautious when heating bottles in a microwave to prevent milk from becoming superheated. The defrost setting is recommended, and the formula's temperature should always be checked before feeding the baby. Choice B, which advises to discard partially used bottles of refrigerated formula after 24 hours, is also correct. This is important to prevent the introduction of pathogens by the baby into the formula. Choice C, recommending mixing one part formula concentrate with two parts water, is essential for ensuring the correct dilution. Choice D, suggesting to discard any remaining portion of a bottle for the next feeding, is incorrect. It is not necessary to discard the remaining portion if it has been refrigerated promptly and used within a safe time frame. Adding fresh formula to a partially used bottle is not recommended, as it can lead to the growth of pathogens that may be transferred to the new formula.
Question 4
A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
A. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery
B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes
D. Telling the client that it is her surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client's legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client's part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon.
Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.
Question 5
A nurse is planning client assignments for the day. Which task should the nurse assign to the nursing assistant (unlicensed assistive personnel)?
A. Recording the urinary output for a client with renal calculi whose urine must be strained
B. Dressing change instructions for a client who had a mastectomy 2 days ago
C. Reporting abnormal lab values to the health care provider for a client scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy
D. Preprocedural teaching for a client scheduled for a cardiac stress test
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Recording the urinary output for a client with renal calculi whose urine must be strained
The nurse is legally responsible for client assignments and must assign tasks based on state nursing practice act guidelines and job descriptions provided by the employing agency. The nursing assistant is trained to measure, collect, and strain urine, making recording urinary output for a client with renal calculi a suitable task for the nursing assistant. This task falls within the nursing assistant's role description. Dressing change instructions for a client who had a mastectomy involve a higher level of skill and knowledge, beyond the scope of a nursing assistant. Reporting abnormal lab values to the health care provider for a client scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy requires interpretation and clinical judgment, which is typically not within the nursing assistant's role. Preprocedural teaching for a client scheduled for a cardiac stress test involves providing detailed information and education, which is usually the responsibility of a licensed nurse or other qualified healthcare provider.
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Question 6
A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:
A. is given after the D10W is finished.
B. should be given at the time it is due in the medication port closest to the client.
C. can be piggybacked into the D10W solution now.
D. is incompatible with dextrose solutions.
Correct answer:
Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.
An LPN is tasked with checking the narcotic count on a medical-surgical unit. Which statement by the LPN requires further investigation?
A. "I need a witness when I waste the leftover narcotics in the client's PCA pump."?
B. "I am going to check the facility's policy for how to dispose of this controlled substance."?
C. "I left the narcotics box unlocked after confirming the beginning of shift count was correct."?
D. "The end of shift narcotics count is incorrect and needs to be reported."?
Correct answer:
The LPN's statement about leaving the narcotics box unlocked after confirming the beginning of shift count was correct requires further investigation. Narcotics should be locked and kept in a secure place during the shift to prevent unauthorized access and ensure patient safety. This statement raises concerns about medication security, which is critical in preventing diversion and ensuring patient safety. The other statements demonstrate appropriate actions: A) The LPN acknowledges the need for a witness when wasting leftover narcotics, ensuring proper documentation and accountability during medication waste. B) Checking the facility's policy for proper disposal of controlled substances shows awareness of regulatory compliance regarding controlled substances. D) Recognizing an incorrect end-of-shift narcotics count and planning to report it reflects the LPN's responsibility in maintaining accurate records and addressing discrepancies, which is essential for medication safety and accountability.
While admitting a client to an acute-care psychiatric unit, the nurse asks about substance abuse based on:
A. psychiatric disorders' higher prevalence in addicted populations
B. individuals with psychiatric disorders' increased susceptibility to substance abuse
C. the importance of detecting and diagnosing substance disorders in acute-care psychiatric settings
D. the significant impact of undetected substance problems on the treatment of psychiatric disorders
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'individuals with psychiatric disorders' increased susceptibility to substance abuse.' It is crucial to inquire about substance abuse during admission to an acute-care psychiatric unit because individuals with psychiatric disorders are more prone to experiencing substance abuse issues. Addressing substance abuse is vital for effective treatment and to prevent relapse in psychiatric disorders. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on the prevalence of psychiatric illness in addicted populations rather than the relationship between psychiatric disorders and substance abuse. Option C is incorrect as it exaggerates the ease of detecting and diagnosing substance disorders in acute-care psychiatric settings. Option D is incorrect as undetected substance problems can indeed significantly impact the treatment of psychiatric disorders, but the main reason for inquiring about substance abuse is the increased susceptibility of individuals with psychiatric disorders to such issues.
While working the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift at the long-term care unit, the nurse gathers the nursing staff to listen to the 3 to 11 p.m. intershift report. The nurse notes that a staff member has an odor of alcohol on her breath, slurred speech, and an unsteady gait, suspecting alcohol intoxication. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A. Contact the nursing supervisor.
B. Tell the staff member that she is not allowed to administer medications.
C. Ask the staff member how much alcohol she has consumed.
D. Ask the staff member to rest in the nurses' lounge until the effects of the alcohol wear off.
Correct answer:
When a staff member reports to work showing signs of alcohol intoxication, the nurse should objectively note the symptoms and ask a second person to confirm these observations. It is crucial to contact the nursing supervisor immediately. An odor of alcohol, slurred speech, unsteady gait, and errors in judgment are indicators of intoxication, posing a risk to client safety. The staff member should be removed from the client care area. Detailed documentation of the incident is essential, including observations, actions taken, future plans, and the staff member's signature and date on the recorded incident memo. If the staff member refuses to sign, this should be noted by the nurse and a witness. Asking the staff member to rest in the nurses' lounge or restricting medication administration does not ensure client safety, as the staff member could still jeopardize it. Inquiring about the amount of alcohol consumed is confrontational and not relevant to the immediate need of ensuring safety.
Melissa Smith came to the Emergency Department in the last week before her estimated date of confinement complaining of headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting. Suspecting PIH, the nurse should best respond to Melissa's complaints with which of the following statements?
A. "The physician will probably want to admit you for observation."?
B. "The physician will probably order bedrest at home."?
C. "These are really dangerous signs."?
D. "The physician will probably prescribe some medicine for you."?
Correct answer:
Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can present after 20 weeks gestation. It is characterized by symptoms like edema, hypertension, and proteinuria, which can progress to conditions like pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. The best approach for a client with advanced PIH is rest, and home provides the most suitable environment for it. Hospitalization is not typically necessary for PIH unless there are severe complications. Medication alone is not the primary intervention for PIH; management often involves monitoring, rest, and close medical supervision. Therefore, advising bedrest at home is the most appropriate response to help manage PIH symptoms and prevent further complications, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. The other options, like hospitalization for observation, emphasizing the danger of the signs without providing guidance, or assuming medication as the primary solution, are not in line with the standard management approach for PIH.
The LPN needs to delegate a task to the nurse aide who is new to the unit. Which of these is the best option for the nurse to choose in proceeding?
A. Delegate the task to the nurse aide, confirm understanding, and follow up to ensure the task was safely and correctly done.
B. Delegate the task to the nurse aide, watch them perform the task without them seeing you, and follow up to ensure the task was done safely and accurately.
C. Delegate the task to the nurse aide, supervise if needed, and check in after the task to see if help is needed.
D. Delegate the task to the nurse aide, ensure understanding of the task, and supervise the task being performed.
Correct answer:
Delegation is transferring responsibility for a task but sharing its accountability. It is the delegator's responsibility to ensure that the delegatee understands the task before it is performed and to follow up afterward to ensure it was completed correctly and safely. Option B is the best choice because it allows the nurse to observe the nurse aide performing the task without pressure, which can provide insights into the aide's abilities and understanding. This method also allows for immediate feedback and correction if needed.
Choice A is incorrect because confirming understanding alone may not provide a complete picture of the aide's competence in performing the task. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests supervising only if needed, which may not provide adequate oversight for a new nurse aide. Choice D is incorrect because supervising the task being performed does not allow for an objective assessment of the aide's abilities and understanding.
The client is unsure about making medical decisions as their disease progresses and wants to appoint someone to make these decisions. Which of the following options would be most appropriate?
A. a living will
B. informed consent
C. a healthcare proxy
D. non-informed consent
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'a healthcare proxy.' A healthcare proxy involves the client appointing an individual to make medical decisions on their behalf if they become unable to do so. This option allows the client to choose someone they trust to act in their best interests.
Choice A, 'a living will,' is a legal document that outlines a person's wishes regarding medical treatment in case they are unable to communicate their decisions. While it is important, it does not involve appointing someone to make decisions.
Choice B, 'informed consent,' is a process where a healthcare provider explains a treatment or procedure, including its risks and benefits, to a patient who can then decide whether to proceed. This is not about appointing someone to make decisions on the patient's behalf.
Choice D, 'non-informed consent,' is not a valid concept in healthcare. Informed consent is crucial for respecting a patient's autonomy and decision-making capacity.
A nurse in charge of a long-term care facility who is working with a nursing assistant on the night shift prepares to take a break. To ensure client safety during the break, which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
A. Asking the nursing assistant to contact the health care provider during the nurse’s break if a client’s pain medication is not effective
B. Informing the nursing assistant that she is leaving the nursing unit to get a cup of coffee from a vending machine in the lobby
C. Asking the nursing assistant to administer a medication placed at the client's bedside if the client awakens
D. Conducting client rounds before taking the break
Correct answer:
The nurse is responsible for ensuring client safety at all times and must not leave the nursing unit for any reason during the shift. The nurse’s break should be taken in a designated area located on the nursing unit. Before taking the break, the nurse should check all clients to ensure that they are safe and comfortable and that their needs have been met. Conducting client rounds before taking the break is crucial to assess the clients' conditions and address any immediate needs, ensuring their safety. Asking the nursing assistant to contact the health care provider during the nurse’s break is not appropriate as the nurse should handle this responsibility. Leaving the nursing unit to get coffee is not recommended as the nurse should stay within the unit to respond promptly to any client needs. Asking the nursing assistant to administer medication or make clinical decisions is outside the scope of their practice and should not be delegated.
Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?
A. it explains the health beliefs a family is likely to have.
B. it emphasizes the role of culture in shaping health explanations.
C. it discusses the significant role of popular and folk domains of influence.
D. it is structured based on education.
Correct answer:
Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the crucial role that popular and folk domains of influence play in shaping individuals' understanding of health and illness. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, which is the biomedical understanding of health problems, and illness, which is the individual's personal interpretation of their health condition. By focusing on the cultural factors that influence these domains of influence, Kleinman's model underscores the impact of cultural beliefs and practices on health perceptions. Choice A is incorrect because the model goes beyond just family health beliefs. Choice B is more precise as it emphasizes the broader influence of culture. Choice C highlights the correct significance of popular and folk domains of influence, making it the correct choice. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in cultural domains, not educational structure.
The physician wants to know if a client is tolerating their total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory tests is likely to be ordered?
A. triglyceride level
B. liver function tests
C. a glucose tolerance test
D. a complete blood count
Correct answer:
The liver is crucial in processing nutrients and medications received through total parenteral nutrition. Liver function tests assess various enzymes produced by the liver, including prothrombin time/partial prothrombin time, serum glutamic oxaloacetic and pyruvic transaminases, gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, albumin, and alkaline phosphatase. Monitoring these enzymes can help determine if the liver is functioning properly to metabolize the nutrients from TPN. Triglyceride levels (Choice A) primarily evaluate the body's ability to clear fats, not specifically related to TPN tolerance. A glucose tolerance test (Choice C) is used to diagnose diabetes by measuring blood glucose levels after ingesting a glucose-rich solution, not directly related to TPN tolerance. A complete blood count (Choice D) assesses blood components such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but does not provide specific information about TPN tolerance.
NCLEX-PN clinical judgment practice questions, set 2 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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