You practice the motion, energy, and wave items some schools still score on HESI A2. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the HESI A2 exam guide or more HESI A2 practice questions.
Five physics questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
When analyzing a power plant, which of the following is NOT considered a part of the system?
A. The fuel being burned.
B. The working fluid (e.g., steam or water).
C. The turbine that generates electricity.
D. The surrounding air.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The surrounding air.
In a power plant system, the components directly involved in the energy conversion process are considered part of the system. The fuel being burned provides the heat source, the working fluid transfers this heat energy, and the turbine converts it into mechanical energy to generate electricity. The surrounding air, while it may interact with the system, is not a component that directly participates in the energy conversion process within the power plant system. Therefore, the correct answer is D - The surrounding air. Choices A, B, and C are essential components of a power plant system as they play direct roles in the energy conversion process, unlike the surrounding air.
Question 2
An electromagnet is holding a 1,500-kg car at a height of 25 m above the ground. The magnet then experiences a power outage, and the car falls to the ground. Which of the following is false?
A. The car had a potential energy of 367.5 kJ.
B. 367.5 kJ of potential energy is converted to kinetic energy.
C. The car retains potential energy of 367.5 kJ when it hits the ground.
D. The car's potential energy converts to kinetic energy and then to sound energy.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The car retains potential energy of 367.5 kJ when it hits the ground.
When the car falls to the ground, its potential energy is converted to kinetic energy as it accelerates downwards. Upon impact with the ground, the car's kinetic energy is dissipated in various forms, such as sound energy, heat, and deformation energy. Therefore, the car does not retain its initial potential energy of 367.5 kJ when it hits the ground. Choice A is true because the potential energy of the car can be calculated as mgh = 1500 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * 25 m = 367,500 J = 367.5 kJ. Choice B is true because as the car falls, its potential energy is converted to kinetic energy. Choice D is true as the kinetic energy is eventually dissipated into other forms upon impact.
Question 3
In fluid dynamics, the continuity equation, a fundamental principle, expresses the conservation of:
A. Momentum
B. Mass
C. Energy
D. Angular momentum
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Mass
The continuity equation in fluid dynamics is a statement of the conservation of mass, making choice B the correct answer. It states that the mass entering a system must equal the mass leaving the system, assuming no mass is created or destroyed within the system. Conservation of momentum (choice A) is related to Newton's laws of motion and is not directly expressed by the continuity equation. Conservation of energy (choice C) involves different principles like the first law of thermodynamics and is not the focus of the continuity equation. Angular momentum (choice D) is also a different concept related to rotational motion and not described by the continuity equation.
Question 4
When calculating an object's acceleration, what must you do?
A. Divide the change in time by the velocity.
B. Multiply the velocity by the time.
C. Find the difference between the time and velocity.
D. Divide the change in velocity by the change in time.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Divide the change in velocity by the change in time.
When calculating an object's acceleration, you must divide the change in velocity by the change in time. Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity with respect to time. By determining the ratio of the change in velocity to the change in time, you can ascertain how quickly the velocity of an object is changing, thereby finding its acceleration. Choice A is incorrect because acceleration is not calculated by dividing time by velocity. Choice B is incorrect as it describes multiplying velocity by time, which does not yield acceleration. Choice C is incorrect as finding the difference between time and velocity is not a method to calculate acceleration.
Question 5
A bicycle and a car are both traveling at a rate of 5 m/s. Which statement is true?
A. The bicycle has more kinetic energy than the car.
B. The bicycle has less kinetic energy than the car.
C. Both vehicles have the same amount of kinetic energy.
D. Only the car has kinetic energy.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The bicycle has less kinetic energy than the car.
Kinetic energy is determined by both the mass and the velocity of an object. While both the bicycle and the car are moving at the same velocity (5 m/s), the car has significantly more mass than the bicycle. As a result, the car has more kinetic energy than the bicycle, even though their speeds are identical. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not consider the influence of mass on kinetic energy. Choice A is incorrect as the car has more kinetic energy due to its greater mass. Choice C is incorrect because the vehicles have different masses. Choice D is incorrect as both the bicycle and the car possess kinetic energy.
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Question 6
According to the Clausius inequality, for a cyclic process involving heat transfer between a system and its surroundings at a single constant temperature (T), the following inequality must hold true:
A. There is no relationship between heat transfer and temperature in a cyclic process.
B. ∫ dQ/T ≥ 0
C. ∫ Q/T = constant
D. ∫ dQ/T ≤ 0
Correct answer:
The Clausius inequality states that for a cyclic process involving heat transfer at a single constant temperature, the integral of heat transfer divided by temperature (∫ dQ/T) must be less than or equal to zero. This inequality reflects the irreversibility of natural processes. Choice A is incorrect as there is a direct relationship between heat transfer and temperature in the Clausius inequality. Choice B is incorrect because the integral of dQ/T must be less than or equal to zero, not greater than or equal to zero. Choice C is incorrect because the integral of Q/T is not a constant in a cyclic process involving heat transfer at a single constant temperature.
The specific heat capacity of water is about 2 J/g°C. How much energy would you need to heat 1 kilogram of water by 10°C?
A. 420 J
B. 4,200 J
C. 42,000 J
D. 420,000 J
Correct answer:
The formula to calculate the energy required to heat a substance is Q = m c ΔT, where m is the mass, c is the specific heat capacity, and ΔT is the change in temperature. Given that 1 kilogram of water is equal to 1,000 grams, the mass (m) is 1,000 g, the specific heat capacity (c) of water is 4.2 J/g°C (not 2 J/g°C), and the change in temperature (ΔT) is 10°C. Substituting these values into the formula: Q = 1,000 4.2 10 = 42,000 J. Therefore, the correct energy required to heat 1 kilogram of water by 10°C is 42,000 J. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not consider the correct specific heat capacity of water or the conversion of mass to grams.
The amount of energy lost in a circuit due to electrical resistance is dissipated in the form of:
A. Light
B. Sound
C. Heat
D. Mechanical work
Correct answer:
When electrical current flows through a circuit with resistance, energy is lost in the form of heat due to the resistance encountered by the electrons. This dissipation of energy as heat is a common phenomenon in electrical circuits and is known as Joule heating. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Heat.' Light, sound, and mechanical work are not typical forms in which energy is lost due to electrical resistance. Light is not a direct result of energy dissipation in electrical circuits, sound is not a form of energy dissipation in this context, and mechanical work pertains to the application of physical force and not the dissipation of energy due to resistance.
Marilyn is driving to a wedding. She drives 4 miles south before realizing that she left the gift at home. She makes a U-turn, returns home to pick up the gift, and sets out again driving south. This time, she drives 1 mile out of her way to pick up a friend. From there, they continue 5 miles more to the wedding. Which of these statements is true about Marilyn's trip?
A. The displacement of her trip is 6 miles, and the distance traveled is 6 miles.
B. The displacement of her trip is 14 miles, and the distance traveled is 14 miles.
C. The displacement of her trip is 8 miles, and the distance traveled is 14 miles.
D. The displacement of her trip is 6 miles, and the distance traveled is 14 miles.
Correct answer:
Marilyn's displacement is calculated based on her final position relative to the starting point. She drives 1 mile to pick up her friend, then 5 miles more to the wedding, totaling 6 miles after returning to her home. So, the correct displacement is 8 miles south from her starting point (4 miles to the gift + 4 miles return + 1 mile to the friend + 5 miles to the wedding). The total distance traveled is 14 miles (adding all the distances). Choice A is incorrect because it miscalculates the displacement. Choice B is incorrect as it overestimates both the displacement and distance traveled. Choice D is incorrect as it underestimates the displacement.
A Carnot cycle is a theoretical ideal heat engine operating between two heat reservoirs at different temperatures. Which of the following statements is NOT true about a Carnot cycle?
A. The efficiency of a Carnot cycle is solely dependent on the absolute temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs.
B. It is a reversible cycle, meaning the process can be run in both directions with the same efficiency.
C. It operates isothermally at the hot and cold reservoir temperatures.
D. It is the most efficient heat engine operating between the same two reservoir temperatures.
Correct answer:
The statement that is NOT true is C. Although part of the Carnot cycle operates isothermally, not the entire cycle operates isothermally. The Carnot cycle consists of both isothermal and adiabatic processes. Choice A is incorrect because the efficiency of a Carnot cycle is indeed solely dependent on the absolute temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs. Choice B is correct as a Carnot cycle is reversible, allowing the process to be run in both directions with the same efficiency. Choice D is also true as the Carnot cycle is the most efficient heat engine operating between the same two reservoir temperatures. Therefore, the correct answer is C.
What is the phenomenon by which light bends as it passes through a prism known as?
A. Reflection
B. Electrical conduction
C. Diffraction
D. Refraction
Correct answer:
Refraction is the phenomenon by which light bends as it passes through a prism or any other medium boundary. When light transitions from one medium to another, such as air to glass in the case of a prism, it changes speed and direction due to the change in the medium's refractive index. This change in speed causes the light to bend. Reflection, on the other hand, is the bouncing back of light when it hits a surface. Diffraction refers to the bending of light around obstacles or through narrow openings. Electrical conduction involves the movement of electrically charged particles through a conductor, which is unrelated to the bending of light.
Household alternating current typically has a frequency of 60 Hz. Which statement is true?
A. The circuit is suitable for lighting 60-watt bulbs.
B. Circuits in the home may carry a current of 60 amperes.
C. The expected voltage drop is 60 volts per meter.
D. Electrons complete a cycle 60 times per second.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D. Electrons complete a cycle 60 times per second when the frequency of the current is 60 Hz. This frequency indicates that the current changes direction 60 times per second, causing the electrons to complete a full cycle back and forth through the circuit at the same rate. Choice A is incorrect because the power rating of a bulb (in watts) is not directly related to the frequency of the current. Choice B is incorrect as typical household circuits do not carry currents as high as 60 amperes. Choice C is incorrect as the expected voltage drop is not measured in volts per meter for household alternating current circuits.
Enthalpy (H) is a thermodynamic property defined as the sum of a system's internal energy (U) and the product of its pressure (P) and volume (V). The relationship between these is:
A. H = U + PV
B. H = U - PV
C. H = U / PV
D. H = PV / U
Correct answer:
Enthalpy (H) is defined as H = U + PV, where U represents internal energy, P is pressure, and V is volume. Enthalpy includes both the internal energy of a system and the energy required to create space for the system against an external pressure. Therefore, the correct relationship between enthalpy, internal energy, pressure, and volume is H = U + PV. Choice B is incorrect as subtracting PV would not account for the work done against pressure. Choice C is incorrect as dividing U by PV doesn't represent the definition of enthalpy. Choice D is incorrect as dividing PV by U is not the correct relationship based on the definition of enthalpy.
An object with a charge of 4 μC is placed 50 cm from another object with a charge twice as great. What is the magnitude of the resulting repulsive force?
A. 0.1152 N
B. 1.152 N
C. 10^−3 N
D. 2.5 10^−3 N
Correct answer:
The force between two charges is calculated using Coulomb's Law, which states that the force is proportional to the product of the two charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. Given that one charge is twice as great as the other and the distance between them is 50 cm, we can calculate the repulsive force. The magnitude of the resulting repulsive force is 2.5 10^−3 N. Choice A is incorrect as it does not match the calculated value. Choice B is incorrect as it is significantly higher than the correct answer. Choice C is incorrect as it represents 10^−3 N, which is lower than the calculated value.
The momentum of an object is calculated by multiplying its mass by its velocity. The momentum formula is p = m v, where p is momentum, m is mass, and v is velocity. Comparing the momentum of each vehicle: A: 9,000 kg 3 m/s = 27,000 kg·m/s B: 2,000 kg 24 m/s = 48,000 kg·m/s C: 1,500 kg 29 m/s = 43,500 kg·m/s D: 500 kg 89 m/s = 44,500 kg·m/s. Therefore, the glider (500-kg) traveling at 89 m/s has the greatest momentum of 44,500 kg·m/s, making it the correct choice. Options A, B, and C have lower momentum values compared to option D, proving that the 500-kg glider traveling at 89 m/s has the highest momentum among the given vehicles.
HESI A2 physics practice questions, set 3 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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