You review anatomy, chemistry, and scientific reasoning the way TEAS 7 reports the science line. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the ATI TEAS 7 exam guide or more ATI TEAS 7 practice questions.
Five science questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of the following is the cartilaginous flap that protects the larynx from water or food while still allowing the flow of air?
A. epiglottis
B. bronchioles
C. epithelium
D. tongue
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — epiglottis
The epiglottis is the cartilaginous flap that protects the larynx from water or food while still allowing the flow of air. When we swallow, the epiglottis covers the entrance to the larynx, preventing food or liquid from entering the airway and instead directing them towards the esophagus for digestion. Choice B, bronchioles, are small airway branches within the lungs and are not involved in protecting the larynx from food or water. Choice C, epithelium, refers to the tissue that lines the surfaces of organs and structures in the body, but it is not the specific structure that protects the larynx as described. Choice D, tongue, plays a role in taste, speech, and swallowing, but it is not the cartilaginous flap that protects the larynx.
Question 2
What are the seven components of the digestive system?
A. Mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver, pancreas
B. Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum
C. Esophagus, stomach, liver, pancreas, small intestine, large intestine, rectum
D. Pharynx, stomach, liver, pancreas, small intestine, large intestine, rectum
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum
The correct answer is B. The seven components of the digestive system are the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and rectum. The mouth begins the process of digestion by chewing and mixing food with saliva. The pharynx serves as a passageway for food and air. The esophagus transports food from the mouth to the stomach. The stomach aids in digestion and acts as a temporary storage site. The small intestine is where most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients occur. The large intestine absorbs water and salts, forming feces. The rectum stores feces until they are eliminated through the anus. The other choices are incorrect as they do not list all seven essential components of the digestive system.
Question 3
What is the momentum of a car with a mass of 1500 kg moving at a speed of 20 m/s?
A. 30,000 kg m/s
B. 1500 kg m/s
C. 20 kg m/s
D. Momentum cannot be determined without knowing the direction of motion.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — 30,000 kg m/s
The momentum of an object is calculated by multiplying its mass by its velocity. In this case, the momentum of the car can be determined using the formula momentum = mass x velocity. Substituting the given values, momentum = 1500 kg x 20 m/s = 30,000 kg m/s. Therefore, the correct answer is A, 30,000 kg m/s. Choice B (1500 kg m/s) is incorrect because that value represents the mass of the car, not its momentum. Choice C (20 kg m/s) is incorrect as it only represents the speed of the car, not its momentum. Choice D (Momentum cannot be determined without knowing the direction of motion) is incorrect because momentum is a vector quantity and can be determined using magnitude and direction, but in this case, only the magnitude is required.
Question 4
What is the primary function of ribosomes in a cell?
A. Protein synthesis
B. DNA replication
C. Cell division
D. Lipid synthesis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Protein synthesis
The correct answer is A: Protein synthesis. Ribosomes are the cellular organelles responsible for protein synthesis. They read the messenger RNA (mRNA) and translate the genetic information into specific proteins. This process is essential for building and maintaining the structures and functions of the cell. Choice B, DNA replication, is incorrect because ribosomes are not involved in replicating DNA; that process occurs in the nucleus. Choice C, cell division, is incorrect as ribosomes are not directly involved in cell division but rather in protein synthesis. Choice D, lipid synthesis, is also incorrect as ribosomes are not responsible for synthesizing lipids, which primarily occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum and other organelles.
Question 5
What is the difference between a homozygous recessive genotype and a homozygous dominant genotype?
A. Both have the same phenotype, but different genotypes.
B. Both have the same genotype, but different phenotypes.
C. Homozygous recessive has two dominant alleles, while homozygous dominant has two recessive alleles.
D. Homozygous recessive has two identical recessive alleles, while homozygous dominant has two identical dominant alleles.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Homozygous recessive has two identical recessive alleles, while homozygous dominant has two identical dominant alleles.
- Homozygous recessive genotype refers to an individual having two identical recessive alleles for a particular gene (e.g., rr for a trait where r represents the recessive allele).
- Homozygous dominant genotype refers to an individual having two identical dominant alleles for a particular gene (e.g., RR for a trait where R represents the dominant allele).
- The difference between the two genotypes lies in the specific alleles present in each case, with homozygous recessive having two recessive alleles and homozygous dominant having two dominant alleles.
- This genetic difference results in different phenotypes being expressed, as the dominant allele typically masks the expression of the recessive allele in heterozygous individuals.
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Question 6
Which blood vessels transport blood from the capillaries back to the heart?
A. Arterioles
B. Veins
C. Venules
D. Capillaries
Correct answer:
Veins are the correct answer as they are the blood vessels that carry blood from the capillaries back to the heart. Veins have thinner walls compared to arteries and contain valves to prevent blood from flowing backward. This transport of blood from the capillaries to the heart is essential for the circulatory system to maintain proper blood flow and oxygenation levels. Arterioles are small branches of arteries that lead to capillaries, not vessels that transport blood back to the heart. Venules are small vessels that collect blood from capillaries and lead to veins. Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels where the exchange of gases and nutrients occurs between blood and tissues, not vessels that transport blood back to the heart.
The correct answer is D, Pancreas. The pancreas is the organ responsible for producing the hormones insulin and glucagon. Insulin functions to lower blood sugar levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose by cells for energy production. On the other hand, glucagon works to raise blood sugar levels by prompting the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. The pancreas is a vital organ in the endocrine system, playing a crucial role in maintaining appropriate blood sugar levels in the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the salivary glands produce saliva, the liver is involved in various metabolic functions, and the gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver, but none of these organs produce insulin and glucagon.
Anya was paid by Company X to analyze dwindling honeybee populations in the Southwest. After measuring hive populations over several months, she noticed no patterns in the geographic distributions of the deaths after comparisons with local maps of interest. This supported her hypothesis, so she took samples of the honey and the bees from the hives and performed dozens of dissections to confirm her suspicions. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis upon which this research was performed?
A. Honeybees are being killed off, and their hives are destroyed by other extremely aggressive species of bees from the South.
B. Honeybees are contracting parasites in large droves.
C. Honeybees are so sensitive to certain pesticides that they die on contact.
D. Honeybees die in larger numbers around cell phone towers.
Correct answer:
The most likely hypothesis based on the information provided is that honeybees are contracting parasites in large droves. Anya observed no geographic patterns in hive deaths and proceeded to analyze honey and bees for further investigation. This suggests that she suspected a widespread issue affecting multiple hives simultaneously, consistent with a scenario where honeybees are being infected by parasites in high numbers, leading to dwindling populations across different locations. The other choices can be eliminated because there is no mention of aggressive species of bees from the South, no evidence pointing to pesticide sensitivity as the cause, and no indication of a correlation with cell phone towers in the information provided.
What is the role of surfactant in the respiratory system?
A. To trap dust particles
B. To increase lung compliance
C. To produce mucus
D. To generate oxygen during respiration
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: To increase lung compliance. Surfactant is a substance produced by type II alveolar cells in the lungs that reduces surface tension in the alveoli. This reduction in surface tension helps to increase lung compliance, making it easier for the lungs to expand and contract during breathing. Improved lung compliance is essential for efficient gas exchange in the respiratory system, facilitating oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide removal. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because surfactant does not trap dust particles, produce mucus, or generate oxygen during respiration. Instead, its primary function lies in reducing surface tension to prevent alveolar collapse and improve lung compliance for optimal gas exchange.
Based on the results that were stated, what would be a logical reason for some of the plants dying with the salt solution?
A. Salt caused the plants to begin to dry up, leading to their death.
B. The salt did not affect the plants.
C. The salt provided adequate nutrients for growth.
D. None of the above
Correct answer:
The most logical reason for some of the plants dying with the salt solution could be that salt caused the plants to begin to dry up, leading to their death. Excessive salt can disrupt the osmotic balance within plants, causing dehydration and ultimately death. Salt can create a hypertonic environment, drawing water out of plant cells and causing wilting and damage. Therefore, it is reasonable to assume that the presence of salt could have dried out some of the plants and caused them to die. Choices B and C are incorrect as the scenario presented indicates that the salt had a negative impact on the plants, causing some to die. Choice D is also incorrect as there is a valid reason provided for the plants dying due to the salt solution.
Passive transport does not require energy input from the cell. Which of the following is an example of passive transport?
A. Active transport of ions across a membrane
B. Diffusion of small molecules across a concentration gradient
C. Movement of large molecules using vesicles
D. Endocytosis of particles into the cell
Correct answer:
Passive transport refers to the movement of molecules across a cell membrane without the input of energy. Diffusion of small molecules across a concentration gradient is a classic example of passive transport, as it occurs spontaneously from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Active transport (option A) requires energy input in the form of ATP to move substances against their concentration gradient. Movement of large molecules using vesicles (option C) involves processes like endocytosis and exocytosis that require energy in the form of ATP. Endocytosis of particles into the cell (option D) is an active process that requires energy expenditure by the cell to engulf and internalize extracellular substances.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. What is the most common location for an ectopic pregnancy?
A. Ovary
B. Fallopian tube
C. Cervix
D. Vagina
Correct answer:
The most common location for an ectopic pregnancy is the fallopian tube. This occurs when the fertilized egg implants and grows outside the uterus, typically in the fallopian tube. Ectopic pregnancies in other locations such as the ovary, cervix, or vagina are much rarer. The fallopian tube is the correct answer because it is the site where the fertilized egg may get stuck during its journey to the uterus, leading to implantation and growth outside the uterus. The ovary is not a common site for ectopic pregnancy, and implantation there can be life-threatening due to the risk of severe bleeding. The cervix and vagina are not typical sites for implantation of a fertilized egg, making them less likely locations for an ectopic pregnancy.
The innate immune system provides a non-specific first line of defense. What are some physical barriers that contribute to the innate immune system?
A. Antibodies
B. Phagocytes
C. Skin and mucous membranes
D. Memory B cells
Correct answer:
Physical barriers such as the skin and mucous membranes are crucial components of the innate immune system's first line of defense. These barriers act as physical obstacles that prevent pathogens from entering the body. Antibodies (option A) are produced by the adaptive immune system in response to specific pathogens and do not serve as physical barriers. Phagocytes (option B) are cells that engulf and digest pathogens, playing a role in the innate immune response but not as physical barriers. Memory B cells (option D) are part of the adaptive immune system and aid in mounting a faster and more effective immune response upon subsequent exposure to a specific pathogen, but they are not physical barriers against initial pathogen entry.
In a neutral atom, the number of electrons must be equal to the number of protons to maintain electrical neutrality. Electrons carry a negative charge while protons carry a positive charge. By having an equal number of electrons and protons, the positive and negative charges balance each other out, resulting in an electrically neutral atom. Choice B is incorrect because in a neutral atom, the number of electrons and protons must be equal. Choice C is incorrect as it compares electrons to neutrons, which are not directly related in determining an atom's charge. Choice D is incorrect as the number of electrons in a neutral atom is not dependent on the atom's temperature but rather on the atom's balance of positive and negative charges.
Nuclear fusion powers the sun and other stars. What is the main obstacle to achieving controlled nuclear fusion on Earth for energy production?
A. Lack of suitable materials to handle high temperatures and pressures.
B. Limited availability of fusion fuels like deuterium and tritium.
C. Difficulty in containing the plasma where fusion occurs.
D. All of the above
Correct answer:
The main obstacle to achieving controlled nuclear fusion on Earth for energy production involves a combination of factors. A) Lack of suitable materials to handle high temperatures and pressures is a significant challenge due to the extreme conditions required for fusion reactions. B) Limited availability of fusion fuels like deuterium and tritium can pose a constraint on the scalability and sustainability of fusion energy. C) Difficulty in containing the plasma where fusion occurs is another critical issue as plasma instabilities and heat losses can hinder the efficiency of fusion reactions. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) contribute to the challenges in achieving controlled nuclear fusion for energy production on Earth.
ATI TEAS 7 science practice questions, set 34 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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